Option A: Attempt to repair the defective dentin
Option B: Abrupt arrest to dentin formation in crown
Option C: Abnormal dentin formation in a disorganized fashion
Option D: Cascades of dentin to form root
Correct Answer: Cascades of dentin to form root ✔
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Option A: Macrostomia
Option B: Fetal alcohol syndrome
Option C: Cleft lip and palate
Option D: Ectodermal dysplasia
Correct Answer: Cleft lip and palate ✔
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Option A: Ankylosed teeth
Option B: Unerupted teeth
Option C: Impacted teeth
Option D: Intruded teeth
Correct Answer: Ankylosed teeth ✔
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Option A: Permanent third molar
Option B: Permanent second premolar
Option C: Permanent lateral incisor
Option D: Permanent Canine
Correct Answer: Permanent third molar ✔
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Option A: End of sinus tract
Option B: Extraction Socket
Option C: Due to irritation from calculus / over hanging restoration
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: End of sinus tract ✔
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Option A: Deafness
Option B: Multiple supernumerary teeth
Option C: Multiple intestional polyps
Option D: scleroderma
Correct Answer: Multiple intestional polyps ✔
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Option A: Paramolars
Option B: Paramolars
Option C: Lateral incisors
Option D: Maxillary canine
Correct Answer: Lateral incisors ✔
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Option A: Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Option B: Fibromatosis gingiva
Option C: Oral melanotic macule
Option D: Hereditary intestinal polyposis syndrome
Correct Answer: Focal epithelial hyperplasia ✔
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Which of the following dentitions shows the highest frequency of ocurrence of supernumerary teeth ?
Option A: Maxillary deciduous dentition
Option B: Maxillary permanent dentition
Option C: Mandibular deciduous dentition
Option D: Mandibular permanent dentition
Correct Answer: Maxillary permanent dentition ✔
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Option A: Micrognathia
Option B: Cleft of the lip and plate
Option C: Tetrology of fallot
Option D: Syndactally
Correct Answer: Micrognathia ✔
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Option A: Amelogenesis imperfecta
Option B: Regional odontodysplasia
Option C: Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Option D: Dentinal dysplasia type I
Correct Answer: Regional odontodysplasia ✔
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Option A: Cornal dentin dysplasia
Option B: Regional odontodysplasia
Option C: Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Option D: Amelogenesis imperfecta
Correct Answer: Cornal dentin dysplasia ✔
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Option A: Severe flurosis
Option B: Trauma at the time of birth
Option C: congenital syphilis
Option D: Due to chronic suppurative abscess in over lying gingival tissue
Correct Answer: congenital syphilis ✔
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Option A: Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta
Option B: Type II dentinogenesis imperfecta
Option C: Type III dentinogenesis imperfecta
Option D: Dentin dysplasia
Correct Answer: Type II dentinogenesis imperfecta ✔
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Option A: Deciduous maxillary anteriors
Option B: Deciduous mandibular anteriors
Option C: Permanent maxillary anteriors
Option D: Permanent manibular anteriors
Correct Answer: Permanent maxillary anteriors ✔
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Option A: Amelogenesis imperfecta
Option B: Cleidocranial dysostosis
Option C: Regional odontodysplasia
Option D: Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Correct Answer: Cleidocranial dysostosis ✔
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Option A: Mandibular premolar
Option B: Mandibular canine
Option C: Mandibular third molar
Option D: Maxillary central incisor
Correct Answer: Maxillary central incisor ✔
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Option A: congenital syphilis
Option B: Tertiary syphilis
Option C: Secondary syphilis
Option D: Acquired syphilis
Correct Answer: congenital syphilis ✔
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Option A: An abnormal proliferation of pulp tissue
Option B: Denticle formation within the pulp tissue
Option C: A deep invagination of the enamel organ during formation
Option D: A supernumerary tooth bud enclaved within a normal tooth
Correct Answer: A deep invagination of the enamel organ during formation ✔
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Option A: Mand. Primary 1st moral
Option B: Mand. Primary 2nd moral
Option C: Maxi. Primary 1st moral
Option D: Maxi. Primary 2nd moral
Correct Answer: Mand. Primary 2nd moral ✔
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Option A: Anodontia
Option B: Oligodontia
Option C: Microdontia
Option D: Dens is dente
Correct Answer: Oligodontia ✔
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Option A: Retrusive maxilla
Option B: Enamel hypoplasia
Option C: Retrusive Mandible
Option D: Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Correct Answer: Enamel hypoplasia ✔
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Option A: Rickets
Option B: Congenital hyperthyroidism
Option C: Cleidocranial dysplasia
Option D: cherubism
Correct Answer: Congenital hyperthyroidism ✔
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Option A: Tuberculum impar and lateral lingual swellings
Option B: Hypobranhiral eminence and tuberculum impar
Option C: The two lateral lingual swellings
Option D: Some of the above
Correct Answer: The two lateral lingual swellings ✔
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Option A: Vitamin A deficiency
Option B: Excess of fluoride
Option C: Vitamin D deficiency
Option D: Teratogens
Correct Answer: Excess of fluoride ✔
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Option A: Max. lateral incisor
Option B: Mand. Second premolar
Option C: Mand. Central incisor
Option D: Mand. first premolar
Correct Answer: Max. lateral incisor ✔
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Option A: Dilaceration
Option B: Concrescence
Option C: Fusion
Option D: Gemination
Correct Answer: Fusion ✔
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Option A: Black hairy tongue
Option B: Median rhomboid glossitis
Option C: Geographic tongue
Option D: Fissured tongue
Correct Answer: Black hairy tongue ✔
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Option A: Primary dentition
Option B: Permanent dentition
Option C: Mixed dentition
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Primary dentition ✔
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Option A: May have resemblance to normal teeth
Option B: Disto molars doesn’t resemble any other tooth
Option C: Mesiodens is the most common supernumerary tooth
Option D: More common in mandible
Correct Answer: More common in mandible ✔
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Option A: May involve both the deciduous and the permanent dentition
Option B: In false anodontia tooth doesn’t undergo full development
Option C: May involve a single tooth
Option D: In total anodontia all teeth are missing
Correct Answer: B. In false anodontia tooth doesn’t undergo full development ✔
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Option A: Defective enamel and dentine
Option B: Defective dentine and obliterated pulp chamber
Option C: Increased rate of caries
Option D: Oligodontia
Correct Answer: Defective dentine and obliterated pulp chamber ✔
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Option A: As developmental anomalies
Option B: From carcinomatous transformation
Option C: As a result of hyperpalsia
Option D: Due to repeated trauma in the area
Correct Answer: As developmental anomalies ✔
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Option A: Linea alba buccalis
Option B: Heck’s disease
Option C: Lingual verices
Option D: Fordyce spots
Correct Answer: B. Heck’s disease ✔
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Option A: Maxillary canine
Option B: Maxillary first molar
Option C: Mandibular second premolar
Option D: Mandibular first molar
Correct Answer: Mandibular second premolar ✔
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Option A: Median rhomboid glossitis
Option B: Geographic tongue
Option C: Black hairy tongue
Option D: Moeller’s glossitis
Correct Answer: Median rhomboid glossitis ✔
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Option A: A hereditary disturbance
Option B: The result of excessive fluoride ingestion
Option C: The result of faulty enamel matrix formation
Option D: Characterized by calcification of pulp chambers and the root canals of the teeth
Correct Answer: Characterized by calcification of pulp chambers and the root canals of the teeth ✔
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Option A: Dens is dent
Option B: Regional odontodysplasia
Option C: Dentin dysplasia
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Regional odontodysplasia ✔
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Option A: Division of a single tooth bud after calcification
Option B: Division of a single tooth bud before calcification
Option C: Fusion of two teeth before calcification
Option D: Fusion of two teeth after calcification
Correct Answer: Division of a single tooth bud before calcification ✔
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Option A: Union between tongue and floor of mouth
Option B: Absence of lingual frenum
Option C: Lingual frenum attached to the tip of tongue
Option D: Short lingual frenum
Correct Answer: Union between tongue and floor of mouth ✔
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Option A: Natal teeth
Option B: Neonatal teeth
Option C: Primary teeth
Option D: Prenatal teeth
Correct Answer: Neonatal teeth ✔
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Option A: Marfan’s syndrome
Option B: Crouzon’s syndrome
Option C: Paget’s disease
Option D: PierreRobin syndrome
Correct Answer: PierreRobin syndrome ✔
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Option A: Frey
Option B: Melkerson-Rosenthal
Option C: Teacher Collins
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Melkerson-Rosenthal ✔
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Option A: Soft tissue cyst present often between maxillary Lateral incisor and cuspid teeth
Option B: Often present between incisor and cuspid teeth but is a bone cyst
Option C: A cyst present between the midline of the palate
Option D: A cyst present in the incisive canal
Correct Answer: Often present between incisor and cuspid teeth but is a bone cyst ✔
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Option A: Congenital syphilis
Option B: Rickets
Option C: Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
Option D: Supernumerary teeth
Correct Answer: Rickets ✔
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Option A: Concrescence
Option B: Fusion
Option C: Gemination
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Concrescence ✔
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Option A: Gottlieb
Option B: Miller
Option C: Synder
Option D: Orland and Fizgerald
Correct Answer: Orland and Fizgerald ✔
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Option A: Dextranase and soluble dextran
Option B: Insoluble dextan and glucosyl transferase
Option C: soluble dextan and glucosyl transferase
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Insoluble dextan and glucosyl transferase ✔
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Option A: Increase in plaque formation
Option B: Increase in calculus formation
Option C: Decrease in plaque formation
Option D: Causes precipitation of salivary proteins
Correct Answer: Decrease in plaque formation ✔
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Option A: Enamel
Option B: Dentin
Option C: Pulp
Option D: Cementum
Correct Answer: Dentin ✔
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Option A: Miller
Option B: G.V black
Option C: Gottlieb
Option D: Schwartz
Correct Answer: Miller ✔
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Option A: low buffering capacity of acids
Option B: Medium buffering capacity for acids
Option C: High buffering capacity for acids
Option D: Independent of buffering capacity for acids
Correct Answer: High buffering capacity for acids ✔
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Option A: Enamel spindles
Option B: Dentinoenamel junction
Option C: Enamel lamellae
Option D: Striae of Retzius
Correct Answer: Dentinoenamel junction ✔
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Option A: Lactobacillus is main acusative organism in plaque
Option B: Smooth surface caries occur due to streptococcus mutans
Option C: Pit and Fissure caries can be prevented by using pit and tissue sealants
Option D: Fluorides help in reducing caries incidence
Correct Answer: Lactobacillus is main acusative organism in plaque ✔
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Option A: Formation of large amount of acid
Option B: Availability of carbohydrate food
Option C: Viscosity of saliva
Option D: Localization of acid over tooth surface
Correct Answer: Localization of acid over tooth surface ✔
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Option A: 1890
Option B: 1920
Option C: 1924
Option D: 1980
Correct Answer: 1890 ✔
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Option A: Zone of bacterial invasion
Option B: Zone which can not be remineralized
Option C: Zone in which collagen is irreversibly denatured
Option D: Zone that need not be removed before restoration
Correct Answer: Zone that need not be removed before restoration ✔
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Option A: Raw starch
Option B: Cooked starch
Option C: Sucrose
Option D: Fructose
Correct Answer: Raw starch ✔
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Option A: Enamel cuticle
Option B: Interprismatic substance
Option C: Organic matrix
Option D: Enamel lamellae
Correct Answer: Interprismatic substance ✔
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Option A: 4.3-4.5
Option B: 5.2-5.5
Option C: 4.9-5.1
Option D: 3.5-4.5
Correct Answer: 5.2-5.5 ✔
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Option A: Glucose
Option B: Sucrose
Option C: Dextran
Option D: Polysaccharide
Correct Answer: Sucrose ✔
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Option A: Zone of sclerosis, decalcification zone, bacterial invasion
Option B: Bacterial invasion, decalcification zone, zone of sclerosis
Option C: Zone of sclerosis, backterial invasion, decalcification zone
Option D: Decalcification zone, zone of scierosis, backterial invasion
Correct Answer: Bacterial invasion, decalcification zone, zone of sclerosis ✔
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Option A: Streptococcus agalactiae
Option B: Streptococcus mutans
Option C: Streptococcus bovis
Option D: Streptococcus anginosus
Correct Answer: Streptococcus mutans ✔
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Option A: Selenium
Option B: Vanadium
Option C: Strontium
Option D: Molybdenum
Correct Answer: Selenium ✔
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Option A: Does not diffuse through plaque
Option B: Is rapidly hydrolysed in the mouth
Option C: Enhances remineralisation
Option D: Raises the PH in the oral cavity
Correct Answer: Does not diffuse through plaque ✔
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Option A: only 1
Option B: only 2
Option C: 1 and 3
Option D: All of the above
Correct Answer: only 1 ✔
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Option A: Fimbriae
Option B: Cilia
Option C: Flagella
Option D: Pseudopodia
Correct Answer: Fimbriae ✔
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Option A: Physical form of sugar
Option B: Frequency of sugar intake
Option C: Ph of Plaque
Option D: Quantity of sugar intake
Correct Answer: Ph of Plaque ✔
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Option A: Destructive potential of streptococcus mutans
Option B: Destructive potential of lactobacillus acidophilus
Option C: Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the outer covering enamel
Option D: Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process
Correct Answer: Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the outer covering enamel ✔
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Option A: Significant increase in number of oral bacteria
Option B: Shift towards more acidogenic microflora
Option C: Significant decrease in number of oral bacteria
Option D: Shift towards more aerobic microflora
Correct Answer: Shift towards more acidogenic microflora ✔
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Which of the following organisms is found in deep carious lesions rather than in incipient lesions ?
Option A: Streptococci
Option B: Lactobacilli
Option C: Veillonella
Option D: Bateroides
Correct Answer: Lactobacilli ✔
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Option A: Microcosm
Option B: Pioneer bacteria
Option C: Advancing bacteria
Option D: Anaerobic bacteria
Correct Answer: Pioneer bacteria ✔
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Option A: Rapid growth
Option B: Frequency of sucrose intake
Option C: Negligence in visiting the dentist
Option D: Carelessness in oral hygiene habits
Correct Answer: Frequency of sucrose intake ✔
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The enzyme glucosyl transferase secreted by Streptococcus mutans sythesizes glucans from__________?
Option A: Glucose
Option B: Fructose
Option C: Sucrose
Option D: Lactose
Correct Answer: Sucrose ✔
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Option A: Exist regularly in the dental plaque
Option B: Produce extracellular amylopectins
Option C: Be lethal for gnotobiotic animals
Option D: Produce intracellular dextrans
Correct Answer: Exist regularly in the dental plaque ✔
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Option A: Forms a gelatinous matrix
Option B: Metabolizes substrate from saliva
Option C: Derives energy from enamel constituents
Option D: Lives symbiolically with lactobacillus
Correct Answer: Forms a gelatinous matrix ✔
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Option A: Maxillary 1st premolar
Option B: Maxillary 2nd molar
Option C: Mandibular 1st molar
Option D: Mandibular 2nd molar
Correct Answer: Mandibular 1st molar ✔
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Option A: Base to base
Option B: Apex to base
Option C: Apex to apex
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Apex to base ✔
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Option A: Dental caries
Option B: Lichen planus
Option C: Herpes simplex
Option D: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Dental caries ✔
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Option A: Actinomyces
Option B: Strep. mutans
Option C: Lactobacillus
Option D: Strep. viridans
Correct Answer: Strep. mutans ✔
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Option A: S. Sarcinus
Option B: S. macae
Option C: S. sanguis
Option D: S. salivarius
Correct Answer: S. sanguis ✔
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Option A: Proteolytic theory
Option B: Proteolytic chelation theory
Option C: Acidogenic theory
Option D: Autoimmune theory
Correct Answer: Acidogenic theory ✔
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Option A: One
Option B: Two
Option C: Four
Option D: Five
Correct Answer: Five ✔
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Option A: More than the patient with normal salivary flow
Option B: less than the patient with normal salivary flow
Option C: unaffected
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: More than the patient with normal salivary flow ✔
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Option A: Mucopolysaccharide
Option B: Dextran-like glucan
Option C: Glycogen – like glucan
Option D: Amylopectin
Correct Answer: Dextran-like glucan ✔
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Option A: Are the main causative agent
Option B: Can produce insoluble extracellular polysaccharides
Option C: Can attack to smooth enamel surfaces
Option D: Are secondary invaders
Correct Answer: Are secondary invaders ✔
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Option A: Stage I
Option B: Stage II
Option C: Stage III
Option D: Stage IV
Correct Answer: Stage I ✔
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Option A: Exophytic oral Hemangioma
Option B: Facial hematoma
Option C: Tramline calcification of dura on lateral cephalogram
Option D: Facial hemangioma
Correct Answer: Facial hematoma ✔
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Option A: Lip
Option B: Gingiva
Option C: Tongue
Option D: Hard palate
Correct Answer: Lip ✔
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Option A: Chondrosarcoma
Option B: Osteosarcoma
Option C: Fibrosarcoma
Option D: Ewing’s sarcoma
Correct Answer: Chondrosarcoma ✔
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Option A: Buccal mucosa
Option B: Floor of mouth
Option C: Lateral border of tongue
Option D: Palate
Correct Answer: Floor of mouth ✔
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Option A: Plasmacytoma
Option B: Multiple myeloma
Option C: Burkitt’s lymphoma
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Both A & B ✔
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Option A: Leukoplakia
Option B: Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
Option C: Erythroplakia
Option D: Oral lichen planus
Correct Answer: Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis ✔
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Option A: Complete radiographic survey
Option B: Biopsy
Option C: Exfoliative cytology
Option D: Pantograph
Correct Answer: Biopsy ✔
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Diffuse erythema (pinpoint petechiae) and white patches in smoker’s palate occur due to__________?
Option A: Complete obstruction to minor salivary gland orifices
Option B: Keratinization with partially occluded minor salivary glands
Option C: Diffuse parakeratinization of the palate
Option D: Excessive orthokeratinization of the palate
Correct Answer: Keratinization with partially occluded minor salivary glands ✔
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Option A: Malignant melanoma
Option B: Squamous cell carcinoma
Option C: Kaposi’s sarcoma
Option D: Ewing’s sarcoma
Correct Answer: D. Ewing’s sarcoma ✔
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Option A: Fibrous dysplasia
Option B: Hyperparathyroidism
Option C: Osteitis deformans
Option D: Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism ✔
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Option A: Neurofibroma
Option B: Fibroadenoma
Option C: Fibrolipoma
Option D: Fibromyoma
Correct Answer: Fibroadenoma ✔
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Option A: Affects people in 3-4 decade of life
Option B: Maxilla affected more than the mandible
Option C: Circumscribed radio opacity
Option D: Continuous growth
Correct Answer: Maxilla affected more than the mandible ✔
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Option A: Surgery + radiotherapy
Option B: Excision
Option C: Laser technique
Option D: Alpha (a) interferon
Correct Answer: Excision ✔
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