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Oral Pathology And Medicine MCQs

Option A: Malignant

Option B: Sarcoma

Option C: Fibro-sarcoma

Option D: squamous cell carcinoma

Correct Answer: squamous cell carcinoma


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Option A: Lung

Option B: Liver

Option C: Spleen

Option D: Heart

Correct Answer: Lung


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Option A: SLE

Option B: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Option C: Plummer-vinson syndrome

Option D: Xeroderma pigmentosum

Correct Answer: SLE


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Option A: Juxta, epithelial fibrosis (changes)

Option B: Changes in epithelium

Option C: Changes in submucosa

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Granular cell myoblastoma

Option B: Neurilemmoma

Option C: Neurofibroma

Option D: Metaplasia

Correct Answer: Neurilemmoma


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Option A: Neurolemmoma

Option B: Neurofibroma

Option C: Neurogenic fibroma

Option D: Traumatic neuroma

Correct Answer: Neurofibroma


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Option A: Lipoma

Option B: Melanoma

Option C: Carcinoma

Option D: Papilloma

Correct Answer: Lipoma


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Option A: Malignant melanoma

Option B: Basal cell carcinoma

Option C: Fibrosarcoma

Option D: Leukoplakia

Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma


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Option A: Activated macrophages

Option B: Histiocytes

Option C: Plasma cells

Option D: Erythrocytes

Correct Answer: Plasma cells


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Option A: Squamous cell carcinoma

Option B: Malignant melanoma

Option C: Basal cell arinoma

Option D: Port-wine stain

Correct Answer: Basal cell arinoma


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Option A: occurs with equal frequency in both se*es

Option B: Rare in children

Option C: Palate is the most common intraoral site

Option D: Is very painful

Correct Answer: occurs with equal frequency in both se*es


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Option A: sq. cell carcinoma

Option B: Basal cell arcinoma

Option C: Verrucous carcinoma

Option D: Granular cell myoblastoma

Correct Answer: Granular cell myoblastoma


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Option A: Homogenous leukoplakia

Option B: Verrucous leukoplakia

Option C: Nodular leukoplakia

Option D: Ameloblastic fibroma

Correct Answer: Nodular leukoplakia


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Option A: metastatic breast carcinoma

Option B: osteosarcoma

Option C: paget’s disease

Option D: Fibrous dysplasia

Correct Answer: osteosarcoma


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Option A: Jugulo omohyoid and jugulo digastric

Option B: sub mandibular and servical lymph nodes

Option C: submental and submandibular lymphnodes

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: sub mandibular and servical lymph nodes


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Option A: angle of mouth

Option B: cheek mucosa

Option C: Soft palate

Option D: Gingiva

Correct Answer: cheek mucosa


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Option A: Surgery

Option B: Surgery +radiotherapy

Option C: Chemotherapy alone

Option D: Surgery+ chemotherapy

Correct Answer: Surgery


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Option A: Sun-brust appearance

Option B: Cotton-wool appearance

Option C: Soap-bubble appearance

Option D: Ground-glass appearance

Correct Answer: Sun-brust appearance


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Option A: Autosomal dominant disease

Option B: Autosomal recessive disorder

Option C: X-linked disease

Option D: A syndrome of unknown cause

Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant disease


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Option A: Hemangioma

Option B: Glomous tumour

Option C: Ewings tumour

Option D: Plasmacytoma

Correct Answer: Glomous tumour


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Option A: Irradiation of tissues from a distance

Option B: Irradiation of tissues from a distance of 3 cm

Option C: Irradiation of tissues by implants within the tissues

Option D: Irradiation of tissues by radiopharmaceuticals

Correct Answer: Irradiation of tissues by implants within the tissues


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Option A: Blood vessels

Option B: Lymphatics

Option C: Direct invasion

Option D: Local infiltration

Correct Answer: Blood vessels


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Option A: Lip

Option B: Tongue

Option C: Palate

Option D: Floor of the mouth

Correct Answer: Lip


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Option A: Hairy tongue (lingua villosa)

Option B: Hyperplastic candidiasis

Option C: Speckled leukoplakia

Option D: Desquamative gingivitis

Correct Answer: Speckled leukoplakia


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Option A: Paraesthesia

Option B: Sudden swelling

Option C: Root resorption

Option D: Diffuse radiolucency

Correct Answer: Paraesthesia


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Option A: Pemphigus vulgaris

Option B: Lupus erythematoses

Option C: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

Option D: Submucous fibrosis

Correct Answer: Submucous fibrosis


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Option A: AIDS

Option B: Hepatitis B

Option C: Smoker’s keratitis

Option D: Candidiasis

Correct Answer: AIDS


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Option A: Fibroma

Option B: Rhabdomyoma

Option C: Granular cell tumour

Option D: Papilloma

Correct Answer: Granular cell tumour


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Option A: Lateral margin

Option B: Tip of tongue

Option C: Posterio 1/3

Option D: Ventral surface

Correct Answer: Lateral margin


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Option A: Invasion

Option B: Degeneration

Option C: Pleomorphism

Option D: Encpsulation

Correct Answer: Invasion


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Option A: Brain

Option B: Regional lymph nodes

Option C: Lung

Option D: Liver

Correct Answer: Regional lymph nodes


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Option A: chronic hypertrophic candidiasis

Option B: Leukoplakia

Option C: Dental ulcers

Option D: atrophic glossitis

Correct Answer: Leukoplakia


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Option A: occurs mostly is female

Option B: metastases easily

Option C: occurs mostly in the lower lip

Option D: is mostly basal cell type

Correct Answer: occurs mostly in the lower lip


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Option A: Benign tumor

Option B: Malignant tumor of the tongue

Option C: Lymphatic enlargement of the tongue

Option D: Developmental anomaly of the tongue

Correct Answer: Benign tumor


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Option A: Pagets disease

Option B: Cherubism

Option C: Garrey’s osteomyelitis

Option D: Burkitts lymphoma

Correct Answer: Burkitts lymphoma


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Option A: Erosive lichen planus

Option B: Syphilitic glossitis

Option C: Leukoedema

Option D: Leukoplakia

Correct Answer: Leukoedema


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Option A: Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis

Option B: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

Option C: Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

Option D: Vascular nevus

Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia


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Option A: Alteration of nuclear cytoplasmic ratio

Option B: Division of nuclei without division of cytoplasm

Option C: Large, Prominent nuclei

Option D: Loss of polarity and disorientation of cells

Correct Answer: Division of nuclei without division of cytoplasm


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Option A: Intradermal nevus

Option B: Junctional nevus

Option C: Lichen planus

Option D: Papilloma

Correct Answer: Junctional nevus


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Option A: Alpha-thalassemia

Option B: Glandular fever

Option C: Hansan’s disease

Option D: Hodgkin’s disease

Correct Answer: D. Hodgkin’s disease


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Option A: Carcinoma lung

Option B: Carcinoma breast

Option C: Carcinoma urinary bladder

Option D: Carcinoma prostate

Correct Answer: Carcinoma prostate


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Option A: Lips

Option B: Buccal mucosa

Option C: Tongue

Option D: Palate

Correct Answer: Lips


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Option A: Hemangioma

Option B: Ameloblastoma

Option C: Neurofibroma

Option D: Giant cell fibroma

Correct Answer: Neurofibroma


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Option A: Koplik’s spots

Option B: Muculo papular skin rash

Option C: Fever and malaise

Option D: Nikolsky’s sign

Correct Answer: D. Nikolsky’s sign


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Option A: Measles

Option B: Herpangina

Option C: Rubelia

Option D: Hand foot and disease

Correct Answer: Herpangina


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Option A: Bell’s palsy

Option B: Acoustic neuroma

Option C: Diphtheria

Option D: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome


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Option A: Squamous cell carcinoma

Option B: Verrucous carcinoma

Option C: Multiple myeloma

Option D: Kaposi sarcoma

Correct Answer: Kaposi sarcoma


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Option A: Herpes simplex

Option B: Herpangina

Option C: Chicken pox

Option D: Measles

Correct Answer: Chicken pox


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Option A: Herpes zoster

Option B: Erythema multiformae

Option C: Herpetic gingivo stomatis

Option D: Recurrent aphthous

Correct Answer: Herpes zoster


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Option A: German measles

Option B: Measles

Option C: Small pox

Option D: Chicken pox

Correct Answer: Measles


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Option A: Smear stained with Giemsa stain

Option B: Smear stained with Wrist’s stain

Option C: Flurorescent staining of cytology smear

Option D: Routing cytology

Correct Answer: Flurorescent staining of cytology smear


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Option A: Herpes zoster

Option B: Chicken pox

Option C: Recurrent herpes simplex infection

Option D: infectious mononucleosis

Correct Answer: Herpes zoster


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Option A: occur in children and young adults

Option B: occur only in young children

Option C: occur in only adults

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: occur in children and young adults


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Option A: oedema following extractions

Option B: oral ulcers in AIDS patients

Option C: TMJ arthritis

Option D: Angioneurotic oedema

Correct Answer: oral ulcers in AIDS patients


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Option A: Primary infection

Option B: is unilateral

Option C: occurs on movable tissues

Option D: is bilatral

Correct Answer: is unilateral


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Option A: Herpes simplex virus infection

Option B: Erythema multiforme

Option C: Recurrent apthous stomatitis

Option D: Coxsackie virus infection

Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection


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Option A: Varicella Zoster virus

Option B: Herpes zoster virus

Option C: Coxsackie virus

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: None of the above


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Option A: Trigeminal

Option B: Facial

Option C: Glossopharyngeal

Option D: Occulomotor nurve

Correct Answer: Facial


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Option A: ulcer

Option B: papule

Option C: vesicle

Option D: Bullae

Correct Answer: vesicle


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Option A: Orthomyxo virus

Option B: Paramyxo virus

Option C: Rheno virus

Option D: EB virus

Correct Answer: Paramyxo virus


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Option A: 1-5 years

Option B: 6-12 years

Option C: 13-16 years

Option D: They are likely to occur equally at any age

Correct Answer: 1-5 years


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Option A: Aphthous ulcers

Option B: Herpes simplex

Option C: koplick spots

Option D: Lesions of Behcet’s syndrome

Correct Answer: Herpes simplex


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Option A: infectious mononucleosis

Option B: lymphoma

Option C: herpangina

Option D: herpes

Correct Answer: herpangina


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Option A: Herpangina

Option B: Scarlet fever

Option C: Rubella

Option D: Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Correct Answer: Herpangina


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Option A: Kaposi’s sarcoma

Option B: Oral hairy leukoplakia

Option C: Gingivitis/periodontitis

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Herpes simplex

Option B: Esptein bar

Option C: Cytomegalovirus

Option D: Varicella zoster

Correct Answer: Varicella zoster


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Option A: Herpes

Option B: Recurrent apthae

Option C: Pemphigus

Option D: Pyogenic granuloma

Correct Answer: Recurrent apthae


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Option A: CD4

Option B: CD8

Option C: Monocytes

Option D: Lymphocytes

Correct Answer: CD4


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Option A: Rubella

Option B: Cytomegalovirus

Option C: Herpes simplex

Option D: Measles

Correct Answer: Measles


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Option A: < 10 yrs. of age

Option B: 12-15 yrs. of age

Option C: 25-30 yrs. of age

Option D: 55-60 yrs. of age

Correct Answer: < 10 yrs. of age


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Option A: primarily affects the anterior portion of the mouth causes acute gingivits

Option B: causes acute gingivits

Option C: occurs as epidemic

Option D: shows prodromal symptoms

Correct Answer: occurs as epidemic


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Option A: Herpes simplex virus

Option B: Coxsackie virus

Option C: Measles virus

Option D: Varicella zoster virus

Correct Answer: Coxsackie virus


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Option A: Herpes zoster

Option B: Measles

Option C: Small pox

Option D: Hand, Mouth & foot disease

Correct Answer: Hand, Mouth & foot disease


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Option A: Acyclovir

Option B: Penicillin

Option C: Tetracycline

Option D: Ciprofloxacin

Correct Answer: Acyclovir


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Option A: Virus in oral mucosa

Option B: Latent virus is skin supplying the area

Option C: Latent virus in nerve ganglia

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Latent virus is skin supplying the area


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Option A: Syphilis

Option B: Recurrent herpes labialis

Option C: Carcinoma

Option D: Traumatic aphthous ulcer

Correct Answer: Recurrent herpes labialis


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Option A: chicken pox

Option B: Herpes zoster

Option C: Herpes simplex

Option D: Poliomyelitis

Correct Answer: Herpes zoster


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Option A: It is preceded by prodromal symptoms

Option B: It is unilateral in nature

Option C: Ulcers relationship seen on the anterior faucial pillars

Option D: Viral etiology

Correct Answer: Ulcers relationship seen on the anterior faucial pillars


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Option A: Viral fever

Option B: erythema multiforme

Option C: pemphigus

Option D: pemphigoid

Correct Answer: Viral fever


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Option A: May lead to high grade fever

Option B: May cause Dysphagia

Option C: May lead to vesicles formation in Anterior part of mouth around 20-30 in number

Option D: Anterior portion of mouth have only minor vesicles

Correct Answer: May cause Dysphagia


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Option A: Acyclovir

Option B: Ziduvidine

Option C: Kenalog in orabase

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Acyclovir


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Option A: Etiological agents differ

Option B: The acute form occurs only inversely immuno compromised individuals

Option C: The primary infection was subclinical

Option D: The patient has received antibodies during intrauterine life and the antibodies have persisted

Correct Answer: The primary infection was subclinical


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Option A: Herpes zoster

Option B: Herpes simplex

Option C: Uveoparotid fever

Option D: Aphthous stomatitis

Correct Answer: Herpes zoster


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Option A: Hairy leukoplakia

Option B: Erythroplakia

Option C: Oral lichen planus

Option D: Bullous pemphigoid

Correct Answer: Hairy leukoplakia


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Option A: First manifestation of measles

Option B: Rarely seen in measles

Option C: Are seen 2-3 days after cutaneous rashes

Option D: Is first manifestation but seldom seen

Correct Answer: Is first manifestation but seldom seen


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Option A: Bacteriophages

Option B: Lipschutz bodies

Option C: Negri bodies

Option D: Donavan bodies

Correct Answer: Lipschutz bodies


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Option A: Unilateral occurrence

Option B: Severe burning pain

Option C: Prominent crusting vesicles

Option D: Sub epidermal bullous formation

Correct Answer: Unilateral occurrence


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Option A: Lymphangioma and granular cell myoblastoma

Option B: Lipoma and fibroma

Option C: Neuroblastoma and lipoma

Option D: Lymphangioma and fibroma

Correct Answer: Lymphangioma and granular cell myoblastoma


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Option A: Stromal connective tissue

Option B: cells of the surface epithelium

Option C: Nuclei of the striated muscle cells

Option D: Cytoplasm of the striated muscle cells

Correct Answer: Stromal connective tissue


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Option A: Apex

Option B: Base

Option C: Lateral borders

Option D: Dorsum

Correct Answer: Lateral borders


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Option A: Burning mouth syndrome

Option B: Fungal infection

Option C: Bacterial infection

Option D: Absence of filiform papillae

Correct Answer: Absence of filiform papillae


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Option A: Median rhomboid glossitis

Option B: Erythema migrans

Option C: Apthous ulcer

Option D: Chemical brun

Correct Answer: Median rhomboid glossitis


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Option A: Fungiform papillae

Option B: Filiform papillae

Option C: Circumvallate papillae

Option D: Taste buds

Correct Answer: Filiform papillae


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Option A: Vitamin B deficiency

Option B: Vitamin C deficiency

Option C: Iron deficiency

Option D: Syphilis

Correct Answer: Syphilis


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Option A: Excision of the lesion

Option B: Penicillin therapy

Option C: Topical application of Nystatin

Option D: Routine observation at recall time

Correct Answer: Routine observation at recall time


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Option A: Riboflavin

Option B: thiamine

Option C: nicotinic acid

Option D: pyridoxine

Correct Answer: Riboflavin


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Option A: Pain in the tongue

Option B: Burning of the tongue

Option C: Swelling of the tongue

Option D: White patch on tongue

Correct Answer: Pain in the tongue


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Option A: Lateral borders of tongue

Option B: Sublingual muosa

Option C: Soft palate

Option D: Buccal mucosa

Correct Answer: Lateral borders of tongue


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Option A: Leprosy

Option B: Syphilis

Option C: Tuberculosis

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: None of the above


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Option A: Glossopyrosis

Option B: Glossodynia

Option C: Glossitis

Option D: Glossolgia

Correct Answer: Glossopyrosis


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