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Pathology MCQs

Option A: Pyknosis – shrinkage of nucleus

Option B: Karyolysis – Dissolution of nucleus

Option C: Karyorrhexis – fragmentation of nucleus

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Low density lipoproteins has maximum association with atherosclerosis

Option B: High density lipoproteins have protective role in atherosclerosis

Option C: Poly unsaturated fats lowers plasma cholesterol levels

Option D: HDL contains the highest cholesterol content

Correct Answer: HDL contains the highest cholesterol content


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Option A: Arterial thrombi produces ischemia and infarction where as cardiac and venous thrombi cause embolism

Option B: Arterial thrombi to be white and non occlusive (mural) where as venous thrombi are red and occlusive

Option C: Venous thrombi are soft, red and gelatinous where as arterial thrombi are firm and white

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Increased liver glycogenolysis

Option B: Causes broachiolar constriction

Option C: Evokes extrasystoles in the heart

Option D: Produces restlessness and anxiety

Correct Answer: Causes broachiolar constriction


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Option A: Penicillinase

Option B: Protamine sulphate

Option C: Pryosulphate

Option D: Potassium sulphate

Correct Answer: Protamine sulphate


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Option A: Testosterone

Option B: Parathyroid

Option C: Insulin

Option D: Thyroid

Correct Answer: Thyroid


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Option A: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma

Option B: Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase

Option C: Inhibits sweat and lacrimation

Option D: Causes tachycardia

Correct Answer: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma


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Option A: Atropine

Option B: Diazepam

Option C: Neostigmine

Option D: Succinylcholine

Correct Answer: Succinylcholine


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Option A: Corticosteroids

Option B: Antihistamines

Option C: Adrenalin

Option D: Diazepam

Correct Answer: Adrenalin


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Option A: Antacids

Option B: Benzodiazepine

Option C: Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen

Option D: Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol

Correct Answer: C. Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen


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Option A: Mydriasis

Option B: Contraction of urinary spinctors

Option C: Vasoconstriction

Option D: Bronchial muscle relaxation

Correct Answer: Bronchial muscle relaxation


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Option A: All beta-adrenergic receptors

Option B: Dopaminergic receptors

Option C: Beta 2 receptors

Option D: Opioid receptors

Correct Answer: All beta-adrenergic receptors


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Option A: choline, adrenaline and amphetamine

Option B: Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine

Option C: Pancuronium, rocuronium

Option D: Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline

Correct Answer: Pancuronium, rocuronium


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Option A: D-tubocurarine

Option B: Gallamine triethiodide

Option C: Pancuronium bromide

Option D: Succinylcholine

Correct Answer: Succinylcholine


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Option A: Bradycardia

Option B: Decreased Salivation

Option C: Decreased Sweating

Option D: Mydriasis

Correct Answer: Bradycardia


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Option A: 110-20% of actinomycosis cases occur in cervicofacial region

Option B: The discharging pus contains visible sulphur granules

Option C: Cultures on blood agar often produce a typical molar tooth morphology

Option D: There is usually history of trauma such as tooth extraction or a blow to the jaw

Correct Answer: 110-20% of actinomycosis cases occur in cervicofacial region


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Option A: Heart chamber

Option B: Valve cusp

Option C: Vein

Option D: Arteries

Correct Answer: Heart chamber


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Option A: G6PD

Option B: Malaria

Option C: Thalassemia

Option D: Dengue fever

Correct Answer: Malaria


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Option A: 47 X &, (+2)

Option B: 47 X Y, -14 t(14;21)

Option C: 46 X Y, -14 t(14;21)

Option D: 47 X Y, t(14;21)

Correct Answer: 47 X Y, t(14;21)


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Option A: Induces cell mediated immunity

Option B: Induces Humoral immunity

Option C: Induces immunity by activation of cytoxic T-cells

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Induces Humoral immunity


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Option A: 0.06 mg

Option B: 0.6 mg

Option C: 60 mg

Option D: 600 mg

Correct Answer: 0.6 mg


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Option A: Polysyndactyly

Option B: Holoprosencephaly

Option C: Mayer Rokitansky syndrome

Option D: Gorlin syndrome

Correct Answer: Polysyndactyly


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Option A: haemophilia

Option B: DIC

Option C: Thrombocytopenic purpura

Option D: Thrombasthenia

Correct Answer: DIC


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Option A: Kleinfelters syndrome

Option B: Down syndrome

Option C: Turner syndrome

Option D: Marfan syndrome

Correct Answer: Kleinfelters syndrome


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Option A: Thrombophebitis

Option B: Endarteritis

Option C: Atheroscleroses

Option D: Lymphangitis

Correct Answer: Thrombophebitis


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Option A: Trisomy 21

Option B: Trisomy 18

Option C: Trisomy 13

Option D: Turner syndrome

Correct Answer: Trisomy 13


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Option A: PAS

Option B: Fontania stain

Option C: Ferrous trichrome

Option D: Pearls prussian blue

Correct Answer: PAS


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Option A: NK cells (Netural killer cells)

Option B: Dendritic cells

Option C: Langerhan’s cells

Option D: Macrophages

Correct Answer: NK cells (Netural killer cells)


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Option A: Silicosis

Option B: Asbestosis

Option C: Byssinosis

Option D: Anthracosis

Correct Answer: Asbestosis


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Option A: Membrane attack complex killing

Option B: Oxidative and non-oxidative killing

Option C: Zipper killing

Option D: Chemotaxis

Correct Answer: Oxidative and non-oxidative killing


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Option A: Neutrophilic infiltration

Option B: Astrocytes

Option C: Ingress of macrophages

Option D: Intense eosinophilia

Correct Answer: Astrocytes


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Option A: Dysplasia

Option B: Anaplasia

Option C: Metaplasia

Option D: Normal histology

Correct Answer: Metaplasia


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Option A: 47 XXY

Option B: 46 XY

Option C: 45 X

Option D: 46 XXY

Correct Answer: 47 XXY


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Option A: Trisomy of 21 chromosome

Option B: Mosaicism of 21 chromosome

Option C: Robersonian translocation of 21.21, 21.18

Option D: Deletion of 21

Correct Answer: Deletion of 21


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Option A: Exprss MHC class I proteins

Option B: Unable to express MHC class I proteins

Option C: Express MHC class II proteins

Option D: Unable to express MHC class II proteins

Correct Answer: Unable to express MHC class I proteins


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Option A: Osteogenic sarcoma

Option B: Osteoclastoma

Option C: Ewings sarcoma

Option D: Chondro sarcoma

Correct Answer: Osteoclastoma


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Option A: Daughter are carrier

Option B: Sons are infected

Option C: Daughter are infeted

Option D: All are normal

Correct Answer: Daughter are carrier


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Option A: Ewing’s sarcoma

Option B: Osteosarcoma

Option C: Chondrosarcoma

Option D: Giant cell tumour

Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma


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Option A: Endothelial injury

Option B: Peripheral vasodilation

Option C: Increased vascular permeability

Option D: Cytokine action

Correct Answer: Cytokine action


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Option A: Congenital thymic aplasia

Option B: Deficiency of complement factor

Option C: Inborn error of metabolism

Option D: Chromosomal anomaly

Correct Answer: Congenital thymic aplasia


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Option A: Pyogenic bacterial meningitis

Option B: Viral meningitis

Option C: Fungal meningitis

Option D: Tuberculous meningitis

Correct Answer: Viral meningitis


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Option A: Provide differentiated terminal cells

Option B: Reconstitution of Bone marrow

Option C: Formation of the ovum

Option D: Act as a repair system for the body

Correct Answer: Reconstitution of Bone marrow


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Option A: IgM spike increase

Option B: Direct plasma cell deposition in glomerular capilaries leads to kidney damage

Option C: IL 8 is a marker for bone lesions

Option D: Invariably increase in alkaline phosphatase

Correct Answer: IgM spike increase


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Option A: G banding

Option B: C banding

Option C: Q banding

Option D: Brd V-staining

Correct Answer: G banding


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Option A: Tumor marker

Option B: Proto oncogene

Option C: Oncogene

Option D: Bacterial antigen

Correct Answer: Tumor marker


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Option A: Xeroderma pigmentosum

Option B: Albinism

Option C: Icthyosis

Option D: Sickle cell anaemia

Correct Answer: Xeroderma pigmentosum


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Option A: 2

Option B: 4

Option C: 6

Option D: 9

Correct Answer: 4


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Option A: Brain parenchyma

Option B: Spinal card

Option C: Basal cisternae

Option D: Medulla oblongata

Correct Answer: Brain parenchyma


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Option A: There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult

Option B: Phosphatase absent in fetal cells

Option C: Proteinase is absent in fetus

Option D: Absence of CD kinase

Correct Answer: There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult


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Option A: Clara cells

Option B: Langerhans cells

Option C: Brush cells

Option D: Klutischky cells

Correct Answer: Langerhans cells


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Option A: 21

Option B: 17

Option C: 15

Option D: 9

Correct Answer: 17


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Option A: Metaphase

Option B: Interphase

Option C: Anaphase

Option D: Prophase

Correct Answer: Interphase


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Option A: Appendicitis

Option B: Enteric fever

Option C: Meningitis

Option D: Myocardial infarction

Correct Answer: Enteric fever


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Option A: Plummer vinson syndrome

Option B: Klinefelter syndrome

Option C: Sturge weber syndrome

Option D: Multiple hamartoma syndrome

Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome


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Option A: Coronary arteries

Option B: Cerebral arteries

Option C: Pulmonary arteries

Option D: Renal arteries

Correct Answer: Pulmonary arteries


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Option A: Pyknosis

Option B: Karyolysis

Option C: Karyorhexis

Option D: None

Correct Answer: Karyolysis


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Option A: Monocytes

Option B: Plasma cells

Option C: Neutrophils

Option D: Eosinophils

Correct Answer: Neutrophils


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Option A: Interferon

Option B: Prostaglandins

Option C: TNF

Option D: Myeloperoxidase

Correct Answer: Interferon


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Option A: C3a, C5a

Option B: C3b, C5a

Option C: C2, C3

Option D: C3b, C5b

Correct Answer: C3a, C5a


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Option A: Kupffer cells in liver

Option B: Microglial cells in nervous system

Option C: Histiocytes in connective tissues

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Fernandez reaction

Option B: Mituda reaction

Option C: Wasserman reaction

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Fernandez reaction


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Option A: High capacity to divide

Option B: Limited capacity to divide

Option C: Long life span as compared to lymphocytes

Option D: Both B and C

Correct Answer: Both B and C


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Option A: Cell mediated

Option B: Humoral

Option C: Foreign body reaction

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Cell mediated


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Option A: Presence of macrophages

Option B: Tissue

Option C: Proliferation of fibroblasts and endothelial cells

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Plasma cells

Option B: Macrophages

Option C: Lymphocytes

Option D: PMN’s

Correct Answer: D. PMN’s


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Option A: It has a specific gravity of 1.018

Option B: It has a low fibrin content

Option C: It has more than 3% proteins

Option D: It is mucinous in consistency

Correct Answer: It has a low fibrin content


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Option A: Lepromatous leprosy

Option B: Tuberculoid leprosy

Option C: Borderline lepromatous leprosy

Option D: Intermediate leprosy

Correct Answer: Lepromatous leprosy


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Option A: Stimulation of T-lymphocytes

Option B: Inhibits of B-lymphocytes

Option C: Inhibits the chemotaxis of neutrophils and macrophages

Option D: Decreases firbroblast and bone resorption activity

Correct Answer: Stimulation of T-lymphocytes


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Option A: Plasma cells

Option B: Eosinophils

Option C: Neutrophils

Option D: Normoblats

Correct Answer: Plasma cells


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Option A: Exudation

Option B: Congestion

Option C: Transudation

Option D: Proliferation

Correct Answer: Proliferation


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Option A: Increase capillary permeability

Option B: Uterine contraction

Option C: Lower blood pressure

Option D: Elevates blood pressure

Correct Answer: Elevates blood pressure


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Option A: Associated inflammatory conditions

Option B: Low protein content

Option C: Tendency to clot

Option D: Specific gravity of above 1.018

Correct Answer: Low protein content


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Option A: Leukocyte

Option B: Marcophage

Option C: Mast cell

Option D: Fibroblast

Correct Answer: Mast cell


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Option A: Monocytes

Option B: Plasma cells

Option C: Neutrophils

Option D: Basophils

Correct Answer: Neutrophils


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Option A: Plasma cells

Option B: Lymphocytes

Option C: Monocytes

Option D: Mast cells

Correct Answer: Mast cells


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Option A: Smooth muscle contraction

Option B: Dilatation of blood vessels

Option C: Pain

Option D: Opsonisation

Correct Answer: Opsonisation


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Option A: It is associated with many types of severe inflammation

Option B: It has low protein content

Option C: It has fibrin precipitates

Option D: It induces connective tissue organization

Correct Answer: It has low protein content


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Option A: Vasodilation

Option B: Stasis of blood

Option C: Increased vascular permeability

Option D: Decreased hydrostatic pressure

Correct Answer: Decreased hydrostatic pressure


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Option A: Tuberculoid leprosy

Option B: Ideterminate leprosy

Option C: Borderline tuberculoid leprosy

Option D: lepromatous leprosy

Correct Answer: lepromatous leprosy


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Option A: Presence of acute inflammation

Option B: Formation of caseous pus with signs of acute inflammation

Option C: Formation of caseous pus without signs of acute inflammation

Option D: Infected cyst

Correct Answer: Formation of caseous pus without signs of acute inflammation


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Option A: Lipochrome

Option B: Wear and tear pigment

Option C: Aging pigment

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Neutrophilia

Option B: Neutropenia

Option C: Monocytoses

Option D: Lymphocytoses

Correct Answer: Neutrophilia


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Option A: Damage to endothelium due to injury or inflammation

Option B: Diminished rate of blood flow

Option C: Increased coagulability of blood

Option D: Increased venous blood pressure

Correct Answer: Increased venous blood pressure


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Option A: Below 1.0.10

Option B: Below 1.012

Option C: Between 1.012 and 1.020

Option D: Above 1.020

Correct Answer: Below 1.012


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Option A: Direct injury & necrosis

Option B: Endothelial Gaps by histamine

Option C: Leucocyte mediated endothelial injury

Option D: Increased tissue oncotic pressure

Correct Answer: Endothelial Gaps by histamine


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Option A: Gonorrhea

Option B: Syphilis

Option C: AIDS

Option D: Tuberculosis

Correct Answer: Tuberculosis


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Option A: Undergoes cavitation

Option B: Undergoes calcification

Option C: Progresses to tuberculous pneumonia

Option D: Progresses to military tuberculosis

Correct Answer: Undergoes calcification


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Option A: LxA4

Option B: LxB4

Option C: 5-HETE

Option D: PGH2

Correct Answer: PGH2


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Option A: Celsus

Option B: Elie Metchnikoff

Option C: Virchow

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Elie Metchnikoff


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Option A: Formation of sinusoids

Option B: Vitamin-A storage

Option C: Increases blood perfusion

Option D: Phagocytosis

Correct Answer: Phagocytosis


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Option A: Lymphocytes

Option B: Plasma cells

Option C: Vacuolated Histocytes

Option D: Neutrophils

Correct Answer: Vacuolated Histocytes


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Option A: A transplant immunity

Option B: An anaphylactic shock

Option C: Systemic arthus reaction

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Systemic arthus reaction


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Option A: PMN’s

Option B: Lymphocytes

Option C: Monocytes

Option D: Eosinophils

Correct Answer: A. PMN’s


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Option A: Mycobacterium leprae

Option B: Actinomyces israeli

Option C: Mycobacterium bovis

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Actinomyces israeli


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Option A: Actinomycosis

Option B: Diphtheria

Option C: Tuberculosis

Option D: Sarcoidosis

Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis


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Option A: Transudation -> exudation -> oedena

Option B: Oedema -> exudation

Option C: Exudation -> transudation -> oedema

Option D: Only by exudation -> oedema

Correct Answer: Transudation -> exudation -> oedena


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Option A: Sarcoidosis

Option B: Leprosy

Option C: Tuberculosis

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Primary

Option B: Secondary

Option C: Tetriary

Option D: Congenital

Correct Answer: Secondary


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Option A: Fungal infections

Option B: Viral infections

Option C: Bacterial infections

Option D: Protozoal infections

Correct Answer: Viral infections


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Option A: Monocytes

Option B: Macrophage

Option C: Neutrophils

Option D: A and B

Correct Answer: A and B


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