Option A: Root
Option B: Bark
Option C: Leaves
Option D: Seed capsule
Correct Answer: Bark ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Phenacetin
Option B: Tetracycline
Option C: Aminoglycoside
Option D: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Diazepam ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Propylthiouracil
Option B: Dexamethasone
Option C: Propranolol
Option D: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Aspirin ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Cough suppression
Option B: Anti-emesis
Option C: Miosis
Option D: Truncal rigidity
Correct Answer: Anti-emesis ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Fever
Option B: Post myocardial infarction
Option C: Venous thrombosis
Option D: Gout
Correct Answer: Gout ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: It is produces more acetylcholine
Option B: It inhibits the action of cholinesterase
Option C: It produces more acetycholine receptors
Option D: It increases the action of cholinesterase
Correct Answer: It inhibits the action of cholinesterase ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: They cross blood Brain Barriers
Option B: They are acidic precursors of Brain amines
Option C: They act as neuromodulators
Option D: They are metabolites of various neurogenic amines
Correct Answer: They cross blood Brain Barriers ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Natrexone
Option B: Nalbuphine
Option C: Butorphanol
Option D: Pentazonice
Correct Answer: Natrexone ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Zolmitriptan
Option B: Zileuton
Option C: Zolpiden
Option D: Zalcitabine
Correct Answer: Zolpiden ✔
Click for More Details
An anxiolytic, not interacting with GABA ergic system and used in generalized anxiety is__________?
Option A: Alprazolam
Option B: Diazepam
Option C: Buspiron
Option D: Phenobarbital
Correct Answer: Buspiron ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Aspirin
Option B: Phenytoin
Option C: Chloromphenicol
Option D: Cyclosporine
Correct Answer: Phenytoin ✔
Click for More Details
A Hemophiliac patient has rheumatold arthritis. Which drug might be prescribed to relieve the pain ?
Option A: Acetaminophen
Option B: Acetylsalicylic acid
Option C: Phenylbutazone
Option D: Naproxen
Correct Answer: Acetaminophen ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Nicotinic cholinergic receptors
Option B: Glutamate receptors
Option C: GABA receptors
Option D: Glucocorticoid receptors
Correct Answer: GABA receptors ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Scoline
Option B: Pentazocine
Option C: Hyoscin
Option D: Phenylephrine
Correct Answer: Pentazocine ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: patients having fever
Option B: patients having asthma
Option C: patients having amoebic dysentery
Option D: Patient having bronchitis
Correct Answer: patients having asthma ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: 1 ml / min
Option B: 2.5 ml / min
Option C: 1 mg / min
Option D: 2.5 mg / min
Correct Answer: 1 ml / min ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: 1 min
Option B: 2 min
Option C: 3-5 min
Option D: 10 min
Correct Answer: 3-5 min ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Peptic ulcer
Option B: Person suffering form chicken pox or small pox
Option C: Hemorrhage
Option D: All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Diazepam
Option B: Secobarbital
Option C: Pentobarbital
Option D: Phenobarbita
Correct Answer: Secobarbital ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Piroxicam
Option B: Tenoxicam
Option C: Meloxicam
Option D: Indomethacin
Correct Answer: Meloxicam ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Aspirin
Option B: Phenyl butazone
Option C: Paracetamol
Option D: Indomethacin
Correct Answer: Paracetamol ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Nephritis
Option B: Chronic hepatitis
Option C: Bleeding disorders
Option D: A & B
Correct Answer: A & B ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: codeine
Option B: Methadone
Option C: Alphaprodine
Option D: Pentazocine
Correct Answer: Methadone ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Contraindicated
Option B: Low safety
Option C: Can be used safely
Option D: Not much use
Correct Answer: Low safety ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Meprobamate
Option B: Pentobarbital
Option C: Trimethadione
Option D: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Phenytoin ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: 10 to 20 percent
Option B: 20 to 30 percent
Option C: 40 to 50 percent
Option D: 60 to 70 percent
Correct Answer: 60 to 70 percent ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Phenobarbitone
Option B: Phenytoin
Option C: Diazepam
Option D: Carbemezipine
Correct Answer: Diazepam ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Antibiotics
Option B: Salicylates
Option C: Barbiturates
Option D: Phenothiazines
Correct Answer: Phenothiazines ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Folic acid deficiency
Option B: Alzhiemer’s disease
Option C: Cushing’s syndrome
Option D: Vitamin C deficiency
Correct Answer: Folic acid deficiency ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Pentazocine and buprinorphine
Option B: Pentazocine shows withdrawal symptoms in opioid dependent patients
Option C: Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects
Option D: Ethomorphine is similar to pethidine chemically
Correct Answer: Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: D-tubocurarin
Option B: Diazepam
Option C: Beclofen
Option D: Mephensin
Correct Answer: D-tubocurarin ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Antibiotic
Option B: Sedative
Option C: Tricyclic antidepressant
Option D: Diuretic
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Excretion
Option B: Metabolism
Option C: Redistribution
Option D: Recycling
Correct Answer: Redistribution ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Produce muscle relaxation
Option B: Alter psychotic behaviour
Option C: Suppress coughing
Option D: Produce analgesia
Correct Answer: Alter psychotic behaviour ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Buspirone
Option B: Nitrazepam
Option C: Zopiclone
Option D: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Buspirone ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Diazepam
Option B: Sodium nitroprusside
Option C: Glyceryl trinitrite
Option D: Pheno barbital
Correct Answer: Diazepam ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: peptic ulcer
Option B: Bleeding defects
Option C: Carcinoma
Option D: A & B
Correct Answer: A & B ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Agranulocytosis
Option B: Hemolytic anemia
Option C: Aplastic anemia
Option D: Hypoprothrombinemia
Correct Answer: Hypoprothrombinemia ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Vitamin K
Option B: Barbiturates
Option C: Acetominophen
Option D: Acetyl salicylic acid
Correct Answer: Acetyl salicylic acid ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: It inhibits thromboxanes
Option B: It stimulates Prostacyclins
Option C: It is a vasodilator
Option D: Ithelps in reducing inflammatory aggregate
Correct Answer: It inhibits thromboxanes ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Naloxone
Option B: Nalosphine
Option C: Nalpuphine
Option D: Methadine
Correct Answer: Naloxone ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Remifentanil
Option B: Morphine
Option C: Sufentanil
Option D: Fentanyl
Correct Answer: Remifentanil ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Analgesia is associated with μ and k receptors
Option B: Dysphoria is associated with S receptors
Option C: NSAIDS benefit by preventing prostaglandin synthesis
Option D: Naloxane is a non-competitive antagonist and irreversibly opposes the opioids
Correct Answer: Naloxane is a non-competitive antagonist and irreversibly opposes the opioids ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Reye’s syndrome
Option B: Nausea
Option C: Diarrhoea
Option D: Acid-base imbalance
Correct Answer: A. Reye’s syndrome ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Respiratory alkalosis
Option B: Haemorrhage
Option C: Hepatic necrosis
Option D: Gastric Ulceration
Correct Answer: Hepatic necrosis ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Aspirin
Option B: Ibuprufen
Option C: Diclofenac potassium
Option D: Mefenamic acid
Correct Answer: Both A & B ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Diphenhydramine
Option B: Atropine
Option C: Naloxane
Option D: Nalorphine
Correct Answer: Naloxane ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Limbic system
Option B: Emetic system
Option C: Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
Option D: Opioid receptors in G.I.T
Correct Answer: Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Diazepam administration
Option B: Digitalis toxicity
Option C: Paget’s disease
Option D: Unconscious states
Correct Answer: Diazepam administration ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Drowsiness
Option B: Gastric irritation
Option C: Xerostomia
Option D: Constipation
Correct Answer: Gastric irritation ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: CNS stimulation
Option B: Muscle fasciculation
Option C: CNS depression
Option D: Decreased salivation
Correct Answer: Muscle fasciculation ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Frank gastric bleeding
Option B: Prolonged prothrombin time
Option C: Platelet dysfunction
Option D: Constipation
Correct Answer: Constipation ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Benzodiazepam is used in treatment of status epilepticus
Option B: Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders
Option C: Clonazeppam is used in the treatment of petitmal epilepsy
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Morphine
Option B: Fentanyl
Option C: Remifentanil
Option D: Sufentanil
Correct Answer: Remifentanil ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Increase BT
Option B: Increase CT
Option C: Increase PTT
Option D: Increase APTT
Correct Answer: Increase BT ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Less thrombophlebitis due to low solubility in blond
Option B: More plasma binding and less toxicity
Option C: More potent than diazepam
Option D: Binds to benzodiazepine receptors with 3-4 time more avidly
Correct Answer: Binds to benzodiazepine receptors with 3-4 time more avidly ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Prostaglandin synthesis
Option B: Ectoglandin synthesis
Option C: Preglandin synthesis
Option D: Costaglandin synthesis
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin synthesis ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Aspirin and Codeine
Option B: Paracetamol and Dextropropoxyphene
Option C: Ibuprofen and Paracetamol
Option D: Ibuprofen and DIclofenac
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen and DIclofenac ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Chlorpheniramine
Option B: Chlorpromazine
Option C: Chloroquine
Option D: Chlorhexidine
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Acetaminophen
Option B: Aspirin
Option C: Ibuprofen
Option D: Diclofenac Sodium
Correct Answer: Acetaminophen ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Olanzepine
Option B: Clozapine
Option C: Risperidone
Option D: Thioridazone
Correct Answer: Thioridazone ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Flumazenil
Option B: Furazolidone
Option C: Naloxone
Option D: Naltrexone
Correct Answer: Flumazenil ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Bromocriptine
Option B: Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Option C: Ketanserin
Option D: Methysergide
Correct Answer: Ketanserin ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Produce distortion in sleep more than other sedatives
Option B: More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts
Option C: After metabolism of other drugs in liver
Option D: All have metabolically active substrates
Correct Answer: More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction
Option B: It causes dilatation of skeletal muscles
Option C: Post ganglionic fibres are longer than pre ganglionic fibres
Option D: Noradrenalin is the neurotransmitter at post ganglionic junction
Correct Answer: Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: They depress ALA synthase
Option B: They inhibit ALA synthase
Option C: They induce heme oxygenase
Option D: They inhibit heme oxygenase
Correct Answer: They depress ALA synthase ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: The analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects identical to that of Non-selective NSAID
Option B: They do not offer the cardio protective effect
Option C: Safe in patients with renal insufficiency
Option D: Fewer incidence of gastrointestinal side effect
Correct Answer: Safe in patients with renal insufficiency ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Atracurium
Option B: Vecuronium
Option C: Rocuronium
Option D: Doxacurium
Correct Answer: Doxacurium ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Diarrhea
Option B: Lacrimation
Option C: Mydriasis
Option D: Excessive speech
Correct Answer: Excessive speech ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Mu receptor antagonist
Option B: Kappa receptor antagonist
Option C: Mu receptor partial agnoist
Option D: Kappa receptor partial agonist
Correct Answer: Mu receptor partial agnoist ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Meprobamate
Option B: Pentobarbital
Option C: Trimethadione
Option D: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Phenytoin ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Tranquilizers
Option B: Non-barbiturates
Option C: Synthetic narcotics
Option D: Antidepressants
Correct Answer: Synthetic narcotics ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Phentoin sodium
Option B: Carbamazepine
Option C: Phenobarbitone
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: None of the above ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: A marked increase in blood pressure
Option B: Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use
Option C: Suppression of prolacin
Option D: Nausea
Correct Answer: Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Indomenthacin
Option B: Salicylates
Option C: Dypyradimole
Option D: Phenobarbitone
Correct Answer: Phenobarbitone ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: It delay onset of labour
Option B: Causes pulmonary hypertension of newborn
Option C: Readily croses placental barrier
Option D: All of these
Correct Answer: All of these ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Ibuprofen
Option B: Indomethacin
Option C: Aspirin
Option D: B & C
Correct Answer: B & C ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Cerebral cortex
Option B: Corpus callosum
Option C: Hypothalamus
Option D: Spinal cord
Correct Answer: Cerebral cortex ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Phenobarbitonse
Option B: Dilantoin sodium
Option C: Diazepam
Option D: Ethosuximide
Correct Answer: Ethosuximide ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Phenylbutazone
Option B: Piroxicam
Option C: Aspirin
Option D: Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: Piroxicam ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Renal failure
Option B: Liver failure
Option C: Respiratory failure
Option D: Convulsions
Correct Answer: Respiratory failure ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Formaldehyde
Option B: Acetaldehyde
Option C: Propanaldehyde
Option D: Butanaldehyde
Correct Answer: Acetaldehyde ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Rifampicin
Option B: Isoniazide
Option C: Pyrazamide
Option D: Ethambutol
Correct Answer: Ethambutol ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Antidepressant
Option B: Antinflammatory
Option C: Antibiotic
Option D: Antiemetic
Correct Answer: Antidepressant ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Left ventricular failure
Option B: Bronchial asthma
Option C: Constipation
Option D: A & C
Correct Answer: A & C ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Acetylcholine
Option B: Ergotamine
Option C: Morphine
Option D: Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: Ergotamine ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Alprozolam
Option B: Zolpidem
Option C: Lorazepam
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Lorazepam ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Nifedipine
Option B: Erythromycin
Option C: Cyclosporin
Option D: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Both A & C ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Bradycardia
Option B: Decreased salivation
Option C: Decreased sweating
Option D: Mydriasis
Correct Answer: Bradycardia ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Meprobamate
Option B: Pentobarbitone
Option C: Thiopentone
Option D: Phenobarbitone
Correct Answer: Thiopentone ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Substantia gelatinosa
Option B: Limbic system
Option C: Medulla
Option D: Cortex
Correct Answer: Substantia gelatinosa ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Bone
Option B: Kidney
Option C: Liver
Option D: Stomach
Correct Answer: Stomach ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Roxatidine
Option B: Pirenzipine
Option C: Betaxolol
Option D: Misoprostol
Correct Answer: Misoprostol ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Hypoprothrombinemia
Option B: Hyperprothrombinemia
Option C: Hyprphosphatasia
Option D: Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: Hypoprothrombinemia ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Crystalluria
Option B: Rye’s syndrome
Option C: Kernicterus
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: B. Rye’s syndrome ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase path way
Option B: Prolonged bleeding time
Option C: Inhibition of thromboxane TXA2
Option D: Inhibition of prostaglandin PGI2
Correct Answer: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase path way ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Aspirin
Option B: Ketoprofen
Option C: Rofecoxib
Option D: Sulidec
Correct Answer: Rofecoxib ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Tetracycline
Option B: Paracetamol
Option C: Metronidazole
Option D: Barbiturates
Correct Answer: Paracetamol ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: MI
Option B: Angina
Option C: Peptic ulcer
Option D: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer ✔
Click for More Details
Option A: Meloxicam
Option B: Naproxen
Option C: C0X2 specific inhibitors
Option D: Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: C0X2 specific inhibitors ✔
Click for More Details