Pharmacology MCQs

Option A: Acute myocardial infarction

Option B: Bleeding from fibrinolytic therapy

Option C: Heart failure

Option D: Multiple pulmonary emboli

Correct Answer: Bleeding from fibrinolytic therapy ✔

Option A: Lipid soluble

Option B: Water soluble

Option C: Low molecular weight

Option D: High molecular weight

Correct Answer: Lipid soluble ✔

Option A: Pretty fast absorption

Option B: A drug is exposed to gastric secretion

Option C: A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism

Option D: A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses

Correct Answer: Pretty fast absorption ✔

Option A: These agents decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in a smooth muscle with long-lasting relaxation

Option B: These agents has a moderate reflex and vascular dilative action caused by the stimulation of sensitive nerve endings

Option C: Beneficial effects of these agents are related primarily to their hemodynamic effects – decreased heart rate, blood

Option D: These agents increase the permeability of K channels, probably ATP-dependent K channels, that results in stabilizing the membrane potential of excitable cells near the resting potential

Correct Answer: D. These agents increase the permeability of K channels, probably ATP-dependent K channels, that results in ✔

Option A: Labetalol

Option B: Clonidine

Option C: Enalapril

Option D: Nifedipine

Correct Answer: Clonidine ✔

Option A: Less likely to cause gastrointestinal bleeding.

Option B: Less likely to cause diarrhea.

Option C: Less likely to cause acute renal failure.

Option D: More likely to reduce inflammation.

Correct Answer: B. Less likely to cause diarrhea ✔

Option A: Valproic acid.

Option B: Carbamazepine.

Option C: Ethosuximide.

Option D: Phenytoin

Correct Answer: Phenytoin ✔

A. Bleomycin
B. Doxorubicin
C. Captopril
D. Prazosin

Submitted by: Dr.Tassawer-e-Meran

Correct Answer: Doxorubicin ✔

Option A: Reduce fever.

Option B: Irreversible inhibit its target enzyme.

Option C: Prevent episodes of gouty arthritis with long term use.

Option D: Reduce the risk of colon cancer.

Correct Answer: Irreversible inhibit its target enzyme. ✔

Option A: Phenobarbital.

Option B: Meprobamate

Option C: Chlordiazepoxide

Option D: Triazolam

Correct Answer: A. Phenobarbital ✔

Option A: Zolpidem

Option B: Buspiron.

Option C: Midazolam

Option D: Triazolam

Correct Answer: B. Buspiron ✔

Option A: Vincristine.

Option B: Tamoxifen.

Option C: Doxorubicin.

Option D: Cyclophosphamide

Correct Answer: Cyclophosphamide ✔

Option A: Root

Option B: Bark

Option C: Leaves

Option D: Seed capsule

Correct Answer: Bark ✔

Option A: Phenacetin

Option B: Tetracycline

Option C: Aminoglycoside

Option D: Diazepam

Correct Answer: Diazepam ✔

Option A: Propylthiouracil

Option B: Dexamethasone

Option C: Propranolol

Option D: Aspirin

Correct Answer: Aspirin ✔

Option A: Cough suppression

Option B: Anti-emesis

Option C: Miosis

Option D: Truncal rigidity

Correct Answer: Anti-emesis ✔

Option A: Fever

Option B: Post myocardial infarction

Option C: Venous thrombosis

Option D: Gout

Correct Answer: Gout ✔

Option A: It is produces more acetylcholine

Option B: It inhibits the action of cholinesterase

Option C: It produces more acetycholine receptors

Option D: It increases the action of cholinesterase

Correct Answer: It inhibits the action of cholinesterase ✔

Option A: Natrexone

Option B: Nalbuphine

Option C: Butorphanol

Option D: Pentazonice

Correct Answer: Natrexone ✔

Option A: Zolmitriptan

Option B: Zileuton

Option C: Zolpiden

Option D: Zalcitabine

Correct Answer: Zolpiden ✔

Option A: Alprazolam

Option B: Diazepam

Option C: Buspiron

Option D: Phenobarbital

Correct Answer: Buspiron ✔

Option A: Aspirin

Option B: Phenytoin

Option C: Chloromphenicol

Option D: Cyclosporine

Correct Answer: Phenytoin ✔

Option A: Acetaminophen

Option B: Acetylsalicylic acid

Option C: Phenylbutazone

Option D: Naproxen

Correct Answer: Acetaminophen ✔

Option A: Nicotinic cholinergic receptors

Option B: Glutamate receptors

Option C: GABA receptors

Option D: Glucocorticoid receptors

Correct Answer: GABA receptors ✔

Option A: Scoline

Option B: Pentazocine

Option C: Hyoscin

Option D: Phenylephrine

Correct Answer: Pentazocine ✔

Option A: patients having fever

Option B: patients having asthma

Option C: patients having amoebic dysentery

Option D: Patient having bronchitis

Correct Answer: patients having asthma ✔

Option A: 1 ml / min

Option B: 2.5 ml / min

Option C: 1 mg / min

Option D: 2.5 mg / min

Correct Answer: 1 ml / min ✔

Option A: 1 min

Option B: 2 min

Option C: 3-5 min

Option D: 10 min

Correct Answer: 3-5 min ✔

Option A: Peptic ulcer

Option B: Person suffering form chicken pox or small pox

Option C: Hemorrhage

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Diazepam

Option B: Secobarbital

Option C: Pentobarbital

Option D: Phenobarbita

Correct Answer: Secobarbital ✔

Option A: Piroxicam

Option B: Tenoxicam

Option C: Meloxicam

Option D: Indomethacin

Correct Answer: Meloxicam ✔

Option A: Aspirin

Option B: Phenyl butazone

Option C: Paracetamol

Option D: Indomethacin

Correct Answer: Paracetamol ✔

Option A: Nephritis

Option B: Chronic hepatitis

Option C: Bleeding disorders

Option D: A & B

Correct Answer: A & B ✔

Option A: codeine

Option B: Methadone

Option C: Alphaprodine

Option D: Pentazocine

Correct Answer: Methadone ✔

Option A: Contraindicated

Option B: Low safety

Option C: Can be used safely

Option D: Not much use

Correct Answer: Low safety ✔

Option A: Meprobamate

Option B: Pentobarbital

Option C: Trimethadione

Option D: Phenytoin

Correct Answer: Phenytoin ✔

Option A: 10 to 20 percent

Option B: 20 to 30 percent

Option C: 40 to 50 percent

Option D: 60 to 70 percent

Correct Answer: 60 to 70 percent ✔

Option A: Phenobarbitone

Option B: Phenytoin

Option C: Diazepam

Option D: Carbemezipine

Correct Answer: Diazepam ✔

Option A: Antibiotics

Option B: Salicylates

Option C: Barbiturates

Option D: Phenothiazines

Correct Answer: Phenothiazines ✔

Option A: Folic acid deficiency

Option B: Alzhiemer’s disease

Option C: Cushing’s syndrome

Option D: Vitamin C deficiency

Correct Answer: Folic acid deficiency ✔

Option A: Pentazocine and buprinorphine

Option B: Pentazocine shows withdrawal symptoms in opioid dependent patients

Option C: Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects

Option D: Ethomorphine is similar to pethidine chemically

Correct Answer: Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects ✔

Option A: D-tubocurarin

Option B: Diazepam

Option C: Beclofen

Option D: Mephensin

Correct Answer: D-tubocurarin ✔

Option A: Antibiotic

Option B: Sedative

Option C: Tricyclic antidepressant

Option D: Diuretic

Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant ✔

Option A: Excretion

Option B: Metabolism

Option C: Redistribution

Option D: Recycling

Correct Answer: Redistribution ✔

Option A: Produce muscle relaxation

Option B: Alter psychotic behaviour

Option C: Suppress coughing

Option D: Produce analgesia

Correct Answer: Alter psychotic behaviour ✔

Option A: Buspirone

Option B: Nitrazepam

Option C: Zopiclone

Option D: Diazepam

Correct Answer: Buspirone ✔

Option A: Diazepam

Option B: Sodium nitroprusside

Option C: Glyceryl trinitrite

Option D: Pheno barbital

Correct Answer: Diazepam ✔

Option A: peptic ulcer

Option B: Bleeding defects

Option C: Carcinoma

Option D: A & B

Correct Answer: A & B ✔

Option A: Agranulocytosis

Option B: Hemolytic anemia

Option C: Aplastic anemia

Option D: Hypoprothrombinemia

Correct Answer: Hypoprothrombinemia ✔

Option A: Vitamin K

Option B: Barbiturates

Option C: Acetominophen

Option D: Acetyl salicylic acid

Correct Answer: Acetyl salicylic acid ✔

Option A: It inhibits thromboxanes

Option B: It stimulates Prostacyclins

Option C: It is a vasodilator

Option D: Ithelps in reducing inflammatory aggregate

Correct Answer: It inhibits thromboxanes ✔

Option A: Naloxone

Option B: Nalosphine

Option C: Nalpuphine

Option D: Methadine

Correct Answer: Naloxone ✔

Option A: Remifentanil

Option B: Morphine

Option C: Sufentanil

Option D: Fentanyl

Correct Answer: Remifentanil ✔

Option A: Analgesia is associated with μ and k receptors

Option B: Dysphoria is associated with S receptors

Option C: NSAIDS benefit by preventing prostaglandin synthesis

Option D: Naloxane is a non-competitive antagonist and irreversibly opposes the opioids

Correct Answer: Naloxane is a non-competitive antagonist and irreversibly opposes the opioids ✔

Option A: Reye’s syndrome

Option B: Nausea

Option C: Diarrhoea

Option D: Acid-base imbalance

Correct Answer: A. Reye’s syndrome ✔

Option A: Respiratory alkalosis

Option B: Haemorrhage

Option C: Hepatic necrosis

Option D: Gastric Ulceration

Correct Answer: Hepatic necrosis ✔

Option A: Aspirin

Option B: Ibuprufen

Option C: Diclofenac potassium

Option D: Mefenamic acid

Correct Answer: Both A & B ✔

Option A: Diphenhydramine

Option B: Atropine

Option C: Naloxane

Option D: Nalorphine

Correct Answer: Naloxane ✔

Option A: Limbic system

Option B: Emetic system

Option C: Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)

Option D: Opioid receptors in G.I.T

Correct Answer: Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) ✔

Option A: Diazepam administration

Option B: Digitalis toxicity

Option C: Paget’s disease

Option D: Unconscious states

Correct Answer: Diazepam administration ✔

Option A: Drowsiness

Option B: Gastric irritation

Option C: Xerostomia

Option D: Constipation

Correct Answer: Gastric irritation ✔

Option A: CNS stimulation

Option B: Muscle fasciculation

Option C: CNS depression

Option D: Decreased salivation

Correct Answer: Muscle fasciculation ✔

Option A: Frank gastric bleeding

Option B: Prolonged prothrombin time

Option C: Platelet dysfunction

Option D: Constipation

Correct Answer: Constipation ✔

Option A: Benzodiazepam is used in treatment of status epilepticus

Option B: Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders

Option C: Clonazeppam is used in the treatment of petitmal epilepsy

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders ✔

Option A: Morphine

Option B: Fentanyl

Option C: Remifentanil

Option D: Sufentanil

Correct Answer: Remifentanil ✔

Option A: Increase BT

Option B: Increase CT

Option C: Increase PTT

Option D: Increase APTT

Correct Answer: Increase BT ✔

Option A: Less thrombophlebitis due to low solubility in blond

Option B: More plasma binding and less toxicity

Option C: More potent than diazepam

Option D: Binds to benzodiazepine receptors with 3-4 time more avidly

Correct Answer: Binds to benzodiazepine receptors with 3-4 time more avidly ✔

Option A: Prostaglandin synthesis

Option B: Ectoglandin synthesis

Option C: Preglandin synthesis

Option D: Costaglandin synthesis

Correct Answer: Prostaglandin synthesis ✔

Option A: Aspirin and Codeine

Option B: Paracetamol and Dextropropoxyphene

Option C: Ibuprofen and Paracetamol

Option D: Ibuprofen and DIclofenac

Correct Answer: Ibuprofen and DIclofenac ✔

Option A: Chlorpheniramine

Option B: Chlorpromazine

Option C: Chloroquine

Option D: Chlorhexidine

Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine ✔

Option A: Acetaminophen

Option B: Aspirin

Option C: Ibuprofen

Option D: Diclofenac Sodium

Correct Answer: Acetaminophen ✔

Option A: Olanzepine

Option B: Clozapine

Option C: Risperidone

Option D: Thioridazone

Correct Answer: Thioridazone ✔

Option A: Flumazenil

Option B: Furazolidone

Option C: Naloxone

Option D: Naltrexone

Correct Answer: Flumazenil ✔

Option A: Bromocriptine

Option B: Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

Option C: Ketanserin

Option D: Methysergide

Correct Answer: Ketanserin ✔

Option A: Produce distortion in sleep more than other sedatives

Option B: More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts

Option C: After metabolism of other drugs in liver

Option D: All have metabolically active substrates

Correct Answer: More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts ✔

Option A: Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction

Option B: It causes dilatation of skeletal muscles

Option C: Post ganglionic fibres are longer than pre ganglionic fibres

Option D: Noradrenalin is the neurotransmitter at post ganglionic junction

Correct Answer: Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction ✔

Option A: They depress ALA synthase

Option B: They inhibit ALA synthase

Option C: They induce heme oxygenase

Option D: They inhibit heme oxygenase

Correct Answer: They depress ALA synthase ✔

Option A: The analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects identical to that of Non-selective NSAID

Option B: They do not offer the cardio protective effect

Option C: Safe in patients with renal insufficiency

Option D: Fewer incidence of gastrointestinal side effect

Correct Answer: Safe in patients with renal insufficiency ✔

Option A: Atracurium

Option B: Vecuronium

Option C: Rocuronium

Option D: Doxacurium

Correct Answer: Doxacurium ✔

Option A: Diarrhea

Option B: Lacrimation

Option C: Mydriasis

Option D: Excessive speech

Correct Answer: Excessive speech ✔

Option A: Mu receptor antagonist

Option B: Kappa receptor antagonist

Option C: Mu receptor partial agnoist

Option D: Kappa receptor partial agonist

Correct Answer: Mu receptor partial agnoist ✔

Option A: Meprobamate

Option B: Pentobarbital

Option C: Trimethadione

Option D: Phenytoin

Correct Answer: Phenytoin ✔

Option A: Tranquilizers

Option B: Non-barbiturates

Option C: Synthetic narcotics

Option D: Antidepressants

Correct Answer: Synthetic narcotics ✔

Option A: Phentoin sodium

Option B: Carbamazepine

Option C: Phenobarbitone

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: None of the above ✔

Option A: A marked increase in blood pressure

Option B: Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use

Option C: Suppression of prolacin

Option D: Nausea

Correct Answer: Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use ✔

Option A: Indomenthacin

Option B: Salicylates

Option C: Dypyradimole

Option D: Phenobarbitone

Correct Answer: Phenobarbitone ✔

Option A: It delay onset of labour

Option B: Causes pulmonary hypertension of newborn

Option C: Readily croses placental barrier

Option D: All of these

Correct Answer: All of these ✔

Option A: Ibuprofen

Option B: Indomethacin

Option C: Aspirin

Option D: B & C

Correct Answer: B & C ✔

Option A: Cerebral cortex

Option B: Corpus callosum

Option C: Hypothalamus

Option D: Spinal cord

Correct Answer: Cerebral cortex ✔

Option A: Phenobarbitonse

Option B: Dilantoin sodium

Option C: Diazepam

Option D: Ethosuximide

Correct Answer: Ethosuximide ✔

Option A: Phenylbutazone

Option B: Piroxicam

Option C: Aspirin

Option D: Ibuprofen

Correct Answer: Piroxicam ✔

Option A: Renal failure

Option B: Liver failure

Option C: Respiratory failure

Option D: Convulsions

Correct Answer: Respiratory failure ✔

Option A: Formaldehyde

Option B: Acetaldehyde

Option C: Propanaldehyde

Option D: Butanaldehyde

Correct Answer: Acetaldehyde ✔

Option A: Rifampicin

Option B: Isoniazide

Option C: Pyrazamide

Option D: Ethambutol

Correct Answer: Ethambutol ✔

Option A: Antidepressant

Option B: Antinflammatory

Option C: Antibiotic

Option D: Antiemetic

Correct Answer: Antidepressant ✔

Option A: Left ventricular failure

Option B: Bronchial asthma

Option C: Constipation

Option D: A & C

Correct Answer: A & C ✔

Option A: Acetylcholine

Option B: Ergotamine

Option C: Morphine

Option D: Ibuprofen

Correct Answer: Ergotamine ✔

Option A: Alprozolam

Option B: Zolpidem

Option C: Lorazepam

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Lorazepam ✔

Option A: Nifedipine

Option B: Erythromycin

Option C: Cyclosporin

Option D: Aspirin

Correct Answer: Both A & C ✔

Option A: Bradycardia

Option B: Decreased salivation

Option C: Decreased sweating

Option D: Mydriasis

Correct Answer: Bradycardia ✔