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Pharmacology MCQs

Option A: An agonist

Option B: A non competitive antagonist

Option C: A physiologic antagonist

Option D: A competitive antagonist

Correct Answer: An agonist


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Option A: Oral

Option B: Inhalation

Option C: Rectal

Option D: Parental

Correct Answer: Oral


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Option A: Congestive cardiac failure

Option B: Hepartic cirrhossis

Option C: Hyperthyroidism

Option D: Hypolbuminaemia

Correct Answer: Congestive cardiac failure


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Option A: Thiopentone

Option B: Ketamine

Option C: Propofol

Option D: Fentanyl

Correct Answer: Ketamine


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Option A: Platalets <80,000

Option B: Patient on aspirin

Option C: Patient on oral anticoagulants

Option D: Raised intracranial pressure

Correct Answer: Patient on aspirin


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Option A: Propofol

Option B: Diazepam

Option C: Droperidol

Option D: Midazolam

Correct Answer: Propofol


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Option A: Stage I

Option B: Stage II

Option C: Stage III plane 2

Option D: Stage III plane 3

Correct Answer: Stage I


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Option A: Methoxyflurane

Option B: Sevoflurane

Option C: Desflurane

Option D: Isoflurane

Correct Answer: Sevoflurane


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Option A: Ketamine

Option B: Thiopentone

Option C: Tentanyl

Option D: Nitrous oxide

Correct Answer: Ketamine


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Option A: Cocaine

Option B: Procaine

Option C: Lignocaine

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Cocaine


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Option A: Cocaine

Option B: Etomidate

Option C: Cyclopropane

Option D: Procaine

Correct Answer: Cocaine


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Option A: Daroperidol + Fentanyl

Option B: Deroperidol + Ketamine

Option C: Droperiodl + Ether

Option D: Droperiodl + Thiopental sodium + Nitrous oxide

Correct Answer: Daroperidol + Fentanyl


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Option A: Harpes David

Option B: Harvey william

Option C: Horace wells

Option D: Hunter John

Correct Answer: Horace wells


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Option A: Cocaine

Option B: Procaine

Option C: Lidocaine

Option D: Tetracaine

Correct Answer: Cocaine


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Option A: Short general anesthetic agent

Option B: Local anesthetic agent

Option C: Antidepressive agent

Option D: Hypnotic agent

Correct Answer: Short general anesthetic agent


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Option A: Behavioral problem

Option B: Sensitizes the heart to adrenaline

Option C: Prolonged difficult induction

Option D: Tachycardia and or arrhythmias

Correct Answer: Behavioral problem


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Option A: Thiopental

Option B: Halothane

Option C: Ethyl Ether

Option D: Nitrous oxide

Correct Answer: Halothane


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Option A: Increasing A-V conduction

Option B: Decreasing cardiac excitability

Option C: Increasing cardiac conduction velocity

Option D: Increasing spontaneous pacemaker activity

Correct Answer: Decreasing cardiac excitability


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Option A: Analgesia

Option B: Excitation

Option C: Surgical anesthesia

Option D: Respiratory arrest

Correct Answer: Analgesia


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Option A: Local anesthetic property

Option B: Local anesthetic and antiseptic action

Option C: Antiseptic action

Option D: Antibiotic action

Correct Answer: Antiseptic action


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Option A: 5 to 20% N20

Option B: 20 to 30% N20

Option C: 30 to 50% N20

Option D: 50 to 70% N20

Correct Answer: 50 to 70% N20


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Option A: Procaine

Option B: Tetracaine

Option C: Lidocaine

Option D: Benzocaine

Correct Answer: Procaine


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Option A: Plasma half-life is 90 min

Option B: Is amide which is metabolized in liver

Option C: Mandibular infiltration is more effective than nerve block in mandibular molar teeth

Option D: More breaks down causes more toxicity

Correct Answer: Plasma half-life is 90 min


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Option A: A good analgesic but a poor anesthetic

Option B: A good anesthetic but a poor analgesic

Option C: A good analgesic and a good anesthetic

Option D: A poor analgesic and a poor anesthetic

Correct Answer: A good analgesic but a poor anesthetic


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Option A: Lignocaine

Option B: Procaine

Option C: Tetracaine

Option D: Benzocaine

Correct Answer: Procaine


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Option A: Halothane

Option B: Isoflurane

Option C: Sevoflurane

Option D: Desflurane

Correct Answer: Halothane


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Option A: Isoflurane

Option B: Ether

Option C: Halothane

Option D: Proplofol

Correct Answer: Halothane


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Option A: Myoneural junction

Option B: Central

Option C: Ascending reticular

Option D: Red nucleus activating system

Correct Answer: Myoneural junction


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Option A: Constricted

Option B: Partially dilated

Option C: Normal in size

Option D: Totally dilated

Correct Answer: Partially dilated


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Option A: Motor fibers only

Option B: Motor and sensory fibres

Option C: Only sensory fibres

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Only sensory fibres


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Option A: Procaine

Option B: Xylocaine

Option C: Lignocaine

Option D: Bupivacaine

Correct Answer: Procaine


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Option A: Alveolar exchage

Option B: Pulmonary ventilation

Option C: Solubility of anaesthetic in blood

Option D: solubility of anaesthetic in tissue

Correct Answer: Solubility of anaesthetic in blood


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Option A: Martin

Option B: Morton

Option C: Morrison

Option D: Murray

Correct Answer: Morton


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Option A: Lignocaine

Option B: Benzacaine

Option C: Prilocaine

Option D: Procaine

Correct Answer: Prilocaine


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Option A: Propanidid

Option B: Theiopentone sodium

Option C: Fentany droperodol

Option D: Ketamine

Correct Answer: Ketamine


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Option A: Spinal Cord

Option B: Medulla oblonagata

Option C: Medullary cortex

Option D: Cerebrum

Correct Answer: Medulla oblonagata


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Option A: Rapid biotransformation

Option B: Rapid accumulation in body fat

Option C: High lipid solubility

Option D: Ability to enter and leave brain tissue every rapidly

Correct Answer: High lipid solubility


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Option A: Blood solubility

Option B: Cerebral blood flow

Option C: Partial pressure of GA

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Haemoglobin

Option B: White blood cells

Option C: Red Blood cells

Option D: Serum

Correct Answer: Red Blood cells


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Option A: Age < 5 years

Option B: History of epilepsy

Option C: Raised intracranial tension

Option D: Recent anterior myocardial infarction

Correct Answer: Recent anterior myocardial infarction


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Option A: Halothane

Option B: Ketamine

Option C: Enflurane

Option D: Isoflurane

Correct Answer: Ketamine


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Option A: Weight of the child

Option B: Age of child

Option C: Nature of the drug

Option D: Chronicity of pain

Correct Answer: Weight of the child


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Option A: Enalapril

Option B: clonidine

Option C: Salmeterol

Option D: Acetazolamide

Correct Answer: Enalapril


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Option A: 12 hrs

Option B: 20 hrs

Option C: 25 hrs

Option D: 30 hrs

Correct Answer: 20 hrs


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Option A: Super sensitivity

Option B: Idiosyncrasy

Option C: Hyper sensitivity

Option D: Hyper acidity

Correct Answer: Hyper sensitivity


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Option A: Salbutamol

Option B: Verapamil

Option C: Propranolol

Option D: Paracetamol

Correct Answer: Propranolol


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Option A: Propofol

Option B: Sevoflurane

Option C: Flumazanil

Option D: Naloxane

Correct Answer: Propofol


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Option A: phenytoin

Option B: Diazepam

Option C: Corticosteroids

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: prevents or bypasses first pass effects

Option B: Easy to administer

Option C: Lipid soluble

Option D: Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity

Correct Answer: prevents or bypasses first pass effects


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Option A: 84%

Option B: 93%

Option C: 80.5%

Option D: 4.75%

Correct Answer: 93%


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Option A: Passive diffusion

Option B: Active transport

Option C: Facilitated trasnsport

Option D: Filtration

Correct Answer: Passive diffusion


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Option A: Idosyncrasy

Option B: Toxicity

Option C: Side effect

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Toxicity


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Option A: The proto type member of a class of drugs

Option B: The oldest member of a class of drugs

Option C: An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite

Option D: A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the direction

Correct Answer: An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite


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Option A: 48

Option B: 24

Option C: 12

Option D: 3

Correct Answer: 3


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Option A: Purity of Enzyme

Option B: Physiological role

Option C: Half life enzymes drug complex

Option D: Affinity

Correct Answer: Half life enzymes drug complex


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Option A: Morbidity index

Option B: Moratality index

Option C: Anesthetic ratio

Option D: Therapeutic index

Correct Answer: Therapeutic index


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Option A: Drug toxicty

Option B: Drug potency

Option C: Drug safety

Option D: Drug’s Lethal effect

Correct Answer: Drug safety


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Option A: First trimester

Option B: Second trimester

Option C: Third trimester

Option D: Soon after birth

Correct Answer: First trimester


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Option A: It is useful in emergencies

Option B: Aseptic precautions are required

Option C: Bioavailability is 100%

Option D: Suspensions can be administered

Correct Answer: Suspensions can be administered


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Option A: Ld50

Option B: Td50

Option C: Md50

Option D: Ed50

Correct Answer: Ed50


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Option A: Is healthy

Option B: With mild systemic disease

Option C: With severe systemic disease

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: With mild systemic disease


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Option A: 1 mg of A causes same effect of 3 mg of B, so A is more potent

Option B: 1 mg of A cause effect not even caused by maximum tolerated dose of B, so drug A is more efficacious

Option C: 1 mg of A cause effect not caused by 1 mg of B so A is more efficacious

Option D: Efficacy is not dose dependent

Correct Answer: Efficacy is not dose dependent


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Option A: A normal healthy individual

Option B: A patient with mild systemic disease

Option C: A patient with severe systemic disease that it not in capacitating

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: A patient with severe systemic disease that it not in capacitating


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Option A: Inverse agonist

Option B: Antagonist

Option C: Agonist

Option D: Partial agonist

Correct Answer: Agonist


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Option A: Side effect

Option B: Toxicity effect

Option C: Idiosyncratic effect

Option D: Drug on Drug effect

Correct Answer: Idiosyncratic effect


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Option A: Morphine

Option B: Nitroglycerine

Option C: Propranolol

Option D: Salicylates

Correct Answer: Salicylates


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Option A: Volume of distribution

Option B: Clearance

Option C: Rate of administration

Option D: Half life

Correct Answer: Volume of distribution


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Option A: Tetracycline

Option B: Cimetidine

Option C: Rifampicin

Option D: Phenobarbitone

Correct Answer: Cimetidine


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Option A: Penicillamine

Option B: E.D.T.A

Option C: Desferrixamine

Option D: B.A.L

Correct Answer: B.A.L


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Option A: Anti-hypertensives

Option B: Anti-diabetics

Option C: Anticoagulants

Option D: Anti-fibrinolytics

Correct Answer: Anticoagulants


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Option A: Range of disease in which the drug beneficial

Option B: Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

Option C: The therapeutic does range of the drug

Option D: The therapeutic index of the drug

Correct Answer: Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug


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Option A: It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation

Option B: Biovailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the area under cure (o-a) after oral and intravenous (IV) administration

Option C: Low oral biovailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption

Option D: Biovailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data

Correct Answer: Low oral biovailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption


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Option A: Indifference

Option B: Synergy

Option C: Antagonism

Option D: Bacterial symbiosis

Correct Answer: Synergy


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Option A: Amiodarone

Option B: Phenytoin

Option C: Verapamil

Option D: Disorpyamide

Correct Answer: Verapamil


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Option A: Physical dependence

Option B: Psychological dependence

Option C: Addiction

Option D: Habituation

Correct Answer: Physical dependence


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Option A: Genetic component

Option B: Psychological component

Option C: Psysiological component

Option D: Nutritional component

Correct Answer: Genetic component


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Option A: Phenytoin

Option B: Phenabarbtion

Option C: Erythromycin

Option D: Digoxin

Correct Answer: Phenytoin


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Option A: Are more common than first order kinetics

Option B: Decrease in concentration exponentially with time

Option C: Have a half – life independent of dose

Option D: Show a plot of drug concentration versus time that is linear

Correct Answer: C. Have a half – life independent of dose


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Option A: LD 100/Ed100

Option B: ED 100/LD 100

Option C: LD 50/ED500

Option D: ED50/LD50

Correct Answer: LD 50/ED500


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Option A: previous exposure to the drug

Option B: Dosage of the drug received

Option C: Pharmacological action of the drug

Option D: Antigen antibody reaction

Correct Answer: Dosage of the drug received


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Option A: Skin eruptions

Option B: Angioneurotic edema

Option C: Sialorrhea

Option D: Serum imbalance

Correct Answer: Both A & B


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Option A: Drugs given IM

Option B: Drugs taken orally

Option C: Drugs given IV

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Drugs taken orally


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Option A: IgG

Option B: IgA

Option C: IgM

Option D: IgE

Correct Answer: IgA


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Option A: Hydolysis

Option B: Reduction

Option C: Oxidation

Option D: Conjugation

Correct Answer: Conjugation


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Option A: Domperidone

Option B: Phenazocine

Option C: Cyclizine

Option D: Ondanestron

Correct Answer: Phenazocine


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Option A: Propranolol

Option B: Timolol

Option C: Metoprolol

Option D: Labetalol

Correct Answer: Labetalol


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Option A: Ranitidine

Option B: Sucralfate

Option C: Misoprostal

Option D: Pantoprazole

Correct Answer: Sucralfate


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Option A: Aminoglycoside

Option B: Vancomycin

Option C: Calcium channel blocker

Option D: Metronidazole

Correct Answer: Calcium channel blocker


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Option A: Cromolyn sodium

Option B: Hydrocortisone

Option C: Salbutamol

Option D: Ipratropium

Correct Answer: Ipratropium


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Option A: Sodium Nitro prusside

Option B: Hydrallazine

Option C: Nifedipine

Option D: Nitrates

Correct Answer: Nitrates


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Option A: Ondansetron

Option B: Metoclopramide

Option C: Sodium citrate

Option D: Atropine

Correct Answer: Metoclopramide


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Option A: Cardiac asthma

Option B: Bronchial asthma

Option C: Pulmanray oedema

Option D: Cor pulmonale

Correct Answer: Bronchial asthma


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Option A: Chlorpromazine

Option B: Digitoxin

Option C: Metaclopromide

Option D: Scopolamine

Correct Answer: Digitoxin


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Option A: Crohn’s disease (treatment)

Option B: To reduce the number of draining enterocutaneous fistula(s) in patients with fistulizing crohn’s disease

Option C: Rheumatoid arthritis (treatment)

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Domperidone blocks the D2 receptors in CTZ and upper gut

Option B: Domperidone causes Dystonia

Option C: Ondastran acts on selective 5 -HT3 receptors

Option D: Ondastran may cause vomiting by effecting the cytotoxic antige receptors

Correct Answer: Ondastran may cause vomiting by effecting the cytotoxic antige receptors


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Option A: Morphine

Option B: Propanolol

Option C: Stropine

Option D: Nitroglycerine

Correct Answer: Nitroglycerine


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Option A: Amphetamine

Option B: Nor epinephrine

Option C: Isoproterenol

Option D: Phenylephrine

Correct Answer: Isoproterenol


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Option A: Angina pectoris

Option B: Cardiac arrhythmia

Option C: Cardiac failure

Option D: Myocardial infarction

Correct Answer: Cardiac failure


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Option A: Direct action on smooth muscle

Option B: Slows SA node conductivity

Option C: Blocks arrhythmia

Option D: Increases perfusion to heart

Correct Answer: Direct action on smooth muscle


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Option A: Hypokalemia

Option B: Hyperuricemia

Option C: Hypercalcemia

Option D: Hyponatremia

Correct Answer: Hypercalcemia


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