Pharmacology MCQs

Option A: ASA

Option B: Acetyl morphine

Option C: Pentazocine

Option D: Propoxyphene

Correct Answer: Acetyl morphine ✔

Option A: Sodium

Option B: Calcium

Option C: Potassium

Option D: Iron

Correct Answer: Potassium ✔

Option A: Used in asthma

Option B: Increase quality of life

Option C: Postural hypotension is seen

Option D: Na level decrease

Correct Answer: Postural hypotension is seen ✔

Option A: Rifampicin causes hepatic enzyme induction and increase metabolism of OCP’s

Option B: Decreased absorption of OCP’s

Option C: Obstruction of fallopian tubes

Option D: Increase excretion of OCP’s

Correct Answer: A. Rifampicin causes hepatic enzyme induction and increase metabolism of OCP’s ✔

Option A: The effect is more pronounced in venous

Option B: High membrane penetrability

Option C: Poorly suited for oral administration

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Mixture of sulphated polypeptide

Option B: Known to cause idiopathic thrombocytosis

Option C: Half-life is 90 min

Option D: Decrease action of prothrombin III

Correct Answer: Half-life is 90 min ✔

Option A: Flunarizine

Option B: Divalprox sodium

Option C: Zonisamide

Option D: Propanolol

Correct Answer: Zonisamide ✔

Option A: H2 antihistamines

Option B: NaHCO3

Option C: Famotidine

Option D: Carbenoxolone

Correct Answer: Carbenoxolone ✔

Option A: Hydralazine

Option B: a-Methldopa

Option C: Nifedipine

Option D: Enlapril

Correct Answer: Enlapril ✔

Option A: Quinapril

Option B: Fosinopril

Option C: Benzopril

Option D: Lisinopril

Correct Answer: Lisinopril ✔

Option A: Dopamine

Option B: dobutamine

Option C: Digoxin

Option D: Doxepin

Correct Answer: Doxepin ✔

Option A: Renal colic

Option B: Organophosphorus poisoning

Option C: Bronchial asthma

Option D: miosis

Correct Answer: Bronchial ✔

Option A: May cause hyperkalaemia in diabetic patients

Option B: Contraindicated in pregnancy

Option C: Contraindicated in diabetic nephropathy

Option D: NSAIDs may impair its hypotensive effect

Correct Answer: Contraindicated in diabetic nephropathy ✔

Option A: Albuterol

Option B: Salmeterol

Option C: Pirlbuterol

Option D: Orciprenaline

Correct Answer: Salmeterol ✔

Option A: Sodium nitrate

Option B: Epinephrine

Option C: Nitroglycerina

Option D: Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct Answer: Nitroglycerina ✔

Option A: Cimetidine

Option B: Famotidine

Option C: Ranitidine

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Cimetidine ✔

Option A: Saralosin

Option B: Diltiazem

Option C: Coptopril

Option D: Spirino lactone

Correct Answer: Coptopril ✔

Option A: Peptic Ulcer

Option B: Amoebiasis

Option C: Malaria

Option D: cholera

Correct Answer: Peptic Ulcer ✔

Option A: Mummifying agent

Option B: Anticoagulant

Option C: Counter irritant

Option D: Anti diarroheal

Correct Answer: Anti diarroheal ✔

Option A: Antihistamine

Option B: Proton pump inhibitor

Option C: Ulcer protective

Option D: Ulcer healing drug

Correct Answer: Proton pump inhibitor ✔

Option A: Kaolin has marginal therapeutic effect

Option B: Opioids delay the passage of gut contents by decreasing peristalsis and increasing intestinal segmentation

Option C: Loperamide had high abuse potential

Option D: Diphenoxylate may cause respiratory depression on administration

Correct Answer: Diphenoxylate may cause respiratory depression on administration ✔

Option A: Mg Causes constipation, Al causes diarrhoea

Option B: Mg Causes Diarrhoea, Al Causes Constipation

Option C: Mg act as buffering agent and Al antagonize its action

Option D: Both increase gastric motility

Correct Answer: Mg Causes Diarrhoea, Al Causes Constipation ✔

Option A: Adrenaline

Option B: propranolol

Option C: Atropine

Option D: Salbutamol

Correct Answer: propranolol ✔

Option A: Histamine

Option B: Salbutamol

Option C: Acetylcholine

Option D: Serotonin

Correct Answer: Salbutamol ✔

Option A: Bronchial asthma

Option B: cardiac asthma

Option C: Hypertension

Option D: Angina pectrosis

Correct Answer: Bronchial asthma ✔

Option A: Phenochyromocytoma

Option B: Migraine

Option C: Thyrotoxcosis

Option D: Secondary shock

Correct Answer: Thyrotoxcosis ✔

Option A: Epinephrine

Option B: Atropine

Option C: A diuretic

Option D: A potent vasadilatior

Correct Answer: Atropine ✔

Option A: Propranolol

Option B: Hydralazine

Option C: A thiazide diuretic

Option D: Gauanethidine

Correct Answer: Gauanethidine ✔

Option A: Ephedrine

Option B: Reserpine

Option C: Methyldopa

Option D: Thiazole diuretics

Correct Answer: Ephedrine ✔

Option A: Less tolerance develops

Option B: Sublingual absorption is better

Option C: Longer duration of action

Option D: Direct coronary vasodilatory action is more

Correct Answer: Longer duration of action ✔

Option A: Alpha methyl DOPA

Option B: Prazosin

Option C: Clonidine

Option D: Propranolol

Correct Answer: Prazosin ✔

Option A: Digitalis

Option B: Ibuprufen

Option C: Corticosteroids

Option D: Diazepam

Correct Answer: Digitalis ✔

Option A: Calcium channel blockers

Option B: Alpha methyl dopa

Option C: Beta blockers

Option D: Pentoxifyline

Correct Answer: Pentoxifyline ✔

Option A: Amlodipine

Option B: Bidoprolo

Option C: Amiodarnone

Option D: Digoxin

Correct Answer: Digoxin ✔

Option A: Hypertension

Option B: Angina pectoris

Option C: Atrial fibrillation

Option D: Congestive heart failure

Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation ✔

Option A: Lidocaine

Option B: Quinidine

Option C: Phenytoin

Option D: Propranolol

Correct Answer: Quinidine ✔

Option A: Sedative

Option B: Alkaloid

Option C: Diuretic

Option D: Anti hypertensive

Correct Answer: Both A & B ✔

Option A: Increases cAMP

Option B: Direct Vasodilator

Option C: Calcium channel blocker

Option D: Block the sympathetic flow at hypothalamus

Correct Answer: Direct Vasodilator ✔

Option A: It has a prominent smooth muscle relaxant action causes arteolar dilation leading to fall in blood pressure

Option B: Nifidipine depresses the SA node thus decreasing mycocoardial excitability

Option C: Mainly depression of A-V conduction

Option D: Decreased cardiac output thus decreasing load on myocardium

Correct Answer: It has a prominent smooth muscle relaxant action causes arteolar dilation leading to fall in blood pressure ✔

Option A: Tetracycline

Option B: Sulphonamide

Option C: Cephalosporin

Option D: Lincemycin

Correct Answer: Cephalosporin ✔

Option A: Ampicillin

Option B: Erythromycin

Option C: Penicilling G

Option D: Methicillin sodium

Correct Answer: Penicilling G ✔

Option A: Ampicillin

Option B: Erythromycin

Option C: Penicilling G

Option D: Methicillin sodium

Correct Answer: Penicilling G ✔

Option A: Griseofulvin

Option B: Amphotericin

Option C: Fluconazole

Option D: Sulfonates

Correct Answer: Fluconazole ✔

Option A: Metronidazole

Option B: Nystatin

Option C: Tetracycline

Option D: Sulphonamides

Correct Answer: Metronidazole ✔

Option A: Methicillin

Option B: Carbenicillin

Option C: Lincomycin

Option D: Oxacillin

Correct Answer: Carbenicillin ✔

Option A: Have no side effects

Option B: Do not cause superinfections

Option C: Are safer to use during pregnancy

Option D: Have a wider range of antibacterial activity

Correct Answer: Have a wider range of antibacterial activity ✔

Option A: Ampicillin

Option B: Penicillin

Option C: Clindamycin

Option D: Cephalosporin

Correct Answer: Clindamycin ✔

Option A: Optic nerve

Option B: Facial nerve

Option C: Auditory nerve

Option D: Trigeminal nerve

Correct Answer: Auditory nerve ✔

Option A: Tetracycline

Option B: Amoxycillin

Option C: Doxycycline

Option D: Triamterene

Correct Answer: Tetracycline ✔

Option A: Cell wall

Option B: Cell membrane

Option C: Protein

Option D: DNA

Correct Answer: Protein ✔

Option A: Dopaminergic receptor – blocking actions

Option B: Gabamimetic actions

Option C: Gaba-inhibitory actions

Option D: Serotonin receptor – blocking action

Correct Answer: D. Serotonin receptor – blocking action ✔

Option A: Reduced because of enhanced hepatic drug metabolism

Option B: Reduced because of increased protein binding

Option C: Increased because of reduction of vitamin sources

Option D: Increase because of decrease renal excretion of the anticoagulant

Correct Answer: Increased because of reduction of vitamin sources ✔

Option A: Isoniazid

Option B: Ethambutol

Option C: Rifampicin

Option D: Pirazinamide

Correct Answer: Isoniazid ✔

Option A: Cholestatic Jaundice

Option B: Grey Syndrome

Option C: Fanconi Syndrome

Option D: Jarish – Herxheimer reaction

Correct Answer: D. Jarish – Herxheimer reaction ✔

Option A: Disphenyl hydantoin

Option B: Diphenhydramine

Option C: Digoxin

Option D: Doxycycline

Correct Answer: Doxycycline ✔

Option A: Pemphigus

Option B: Herpes simplex

Option C: Candidiasis

Option D: Syphilis

Correct Answer: Candidiasis ✔

Option A: Benzathine

Option B: Procaine

Option C: Crystalline

Option D: Benzathamine

Correct Answer: Crystalline ✔

Option A: Tetracycline

Option B: Aminoglycoside

Option C: Penicillin

Option D: Cephalosporin

Correct Answer: Tetracycline ✔

Option A: Lincomycin

Option B: Chloramphenicol

Option C: Erythromycin

Option D: Penicillin

Correct Answer: Penicillin ✔

Option A: Neisseria meningitis

Option B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Option C: Treponema Pallidum

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Ethambutol

Option B: Isoniazid

Option C: Rifampicin

Option D: Streptomycin

Correct Answer: Streptomycin ✔

Option A: Are bacteriostatic

Option B: Distributed only extracellularly

Option C: Excreted unchanged in urine

Option D: Teratogenic

Correct Answer: Are bacteriostatic ✔

Option A: Cephapirin

Option B: Cefadroxil

Option C: Cefaclor

Option D: Cefixime

Correct Answer: Cefadroxil ✔

Option A: Mycostatin

Option B: Amphoterin

Option C: Antibiotics

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Mycostatin ✔

Option A: Anticancer drug

Option B: Antibiotic

Option C: Antiarrythmic

Option D: Immunosuppresant

Correct Answer: Immunosuppresant ✔

Option A: Ceftrioxone

Option B: Cefaclor

Option C: Cefepime

Option D: Cefuroxime

Correct Answer: Cefepime ✔

Option A: Has no side-effects

Option B: Is used in management of ANUG

Option C: Is mainly concentrated in saliva

Option D: Is active against gram-positive aerobes

Correct Answer: Is used in management of ANUG ✔

Option A: Rifampicin

Option B: Ethionamide

Option C: Cycloserine

Option D: Ethambutol

Correct Answer: Ethionamide ✔

Option A: Anaerobic

Option B: Gram positive organism

Option C: Gram negative organisms

Option D: Yeast and fungi

Correct Answer: Yeast and fungi ✔

Option A: Higher oral biovailability

Option B: Lower oral biovailability

Option C: Equal oral biovailability

Option D: Can be given Parenterally

Correct Answer: Higher oral biovailability ✔

Option A: Gentamycin

Option B: Tetracycline

Option C: Aztreonam

Option D: Neomycin

Correct Answer: Neomycin ✔

Option A: Burns

Option B: Tinea

Option C: Non-specific vaginitis

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Penicillin

Option B: Imipenem

Option C: Cephalosporins

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Nystatin

Option B: Amphotericin

Option C: Interferons

Option D: Thiobendazole

Correct Answer: Amphotericin ✔

Option A: Increased excretion of probenacid in the feaces and perspiration

Option B: Increased excretion of probenacid in urine

Option C: Increased metabolis of penciling G

Option D: Decreased renal excretion of penciling G

Correct Answer: Decreased renal excretion of penciling G ✔

Option A: Procarbazine

Option B: Vincristine

Option C: Mechlorethamine

Option D: Methotrexate

Correct Answer: Methotrexate ✔

Option A: Cephalexin

Option B: Cloxacillin

Option C: Piperacillin

Option D: Dictoxacillin

Correct Answer: Piperacillin ✔

Option A: Cefoperazone

Option B: Cefaclor

Option C: Ceftriaxone

Option D: Cefotaxime

Correct Answer: Cefoperazone ✔

Option A: Suphacetamide

Option B: Sulphadiazine

Option C: Silversulphadiazine

Option D: Mafenide

Correct Answer: Sulphadiazine ✔

Option A: Amoxicillin

Option B: Penicillin G

Option C: Piperacillin

Option D: Cloxacillin

Correct Answer: Cloxacillin ✔

Option A: Carbapenems

Option B: Monobactams

Option C: Cephamycins

Option D: Nitrofurantoins

Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoins ✔

Option A: Protease inhibitor

Option B: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Option C: Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Option D: Fusion inhibitor

Correct Answer: Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor ✔

Option A: Vancomycin

Option B: Imipenem

Option C: Teichoplanin

Option D: Linezolid

Correct Answer: Imipenem ✔

Option A: Gentamycin

Option B: Streptomycin

Option C: Methoxyprenaline

Option D: Isoflurane

Correct Answer: Isoflurane ✔

Option A: Clotrimazole

Option B: Clotrimoxazole

Option C: Ornidazole

Option D: Propronolol

Correct Answer: Clotrimazole ✔

Option A: Granulocytes

Option B: Immunoglobulins

Option C: Opsonins

Option D: T lymphocytes

Correct Answer: T lymphocytes ✔

Option A: 30S ribosomes

Option B: 50S ribosomes

Option C: Cell membrane

Option D: Inhibiting DNA gyrase

Correct Answer: 30S ribosomes ✔

Option A: Atovaquone + Proguanil

Option B: Artemisinin

Option C: Quinine + Tetracycline

Option D: Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxime

Correct Answer: Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxime ✔

Option A: Erythromycin

Option B: Roxithromycin

Option C: Neomycin

Option D: Calithromycin

Correct Answer: Neomycin ✔

Option A: Destroyed by gastic acid

Option B: Very active against sensitive gram positive coci

Option C: Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis

Option D: More concentrated in prostatic secretion and intraocular fluids

Correct Answer: More concentrated in prostatic secretion and intraocular fluids ✔

Option A: Ondensetron

Option B: Metaclopromide

Option C: Chlorpromazine

Option D: Dicyclomine

Correct Answer: Ondensetron ✔

Option A: 1% to 10%

Option B: 10% to 20%

Option C: 20% to 30

Option D: 30% to 40%

Correct Answer: 1% to 10% ✔

Option A: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine

Option B: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Indivair

Option C: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Stavudine

Option D: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Abacavir

Correct Answer: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine ✔

Option A: Inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the ribosomal complex

Option B: Inhibiting peptidyl transferase

Option C: Inactivating elongation factors

Option D: Causing misreading of mRNA

Correct Answer: Inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the ribosomal complex ✔

Option A: Piperacillin

Option B: Mezlocillin

Option C: Azlocillin

Option D: Flucloxacillin

Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin ✔

Option A: A long acting macrolide

Option B: Short action quinolone

Option C: Short acting macrolide

Option D: Long acting polypeptide

Correct Answer: A long acting macrolide ✔

Option A: Active against pseudomonas aeruginose

Option B: Inhibits Beta-lactamase

Option C: It is a ureido penicillin

Option D: Given parenterally

Correct Answer: Inhibits Beta-lactamase ✔

Option A: Cephadroxil

Option B: Cefepime

Option C: Cefotaxime

Option D: Cefoperazone

Correct Answer: Cephadroxil ✔

Option A: Sulphonamide

Option B: Carbamide

Option C: Cephalosporins

Option D: Ofloxacin

Correct Answer: Cephalosporins ✔

Option A: Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by binding to subunit of bacterial ribosomes

Option B: Inhibition of cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis by competitive inhibition of transpetidases

Option C: Reduced drug causes strand breaks in DNA

Option D: Inhibition of DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA-Dependent RNA polymerase

Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis by competitive inhibition of transpetidases ✔