Option A: Activating receptors on beta cells of pancreas to release insulin
Option B: Inhibiting gluconeogenesis in liver
Option C: Enhancing insulin mediated post receptor enzyme reaction
Option D: Decreasing Glucose absorption from the qut
Correct Answer: Decreasing Glucose absorption from the qut ✔
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Option A: Regulates vasomotor tone
Option B: Acts via cAMP
Option C: Present in cigarette smoke
Option D: It is important in penile erection
Correct Answer: Acts via cAMP ✔
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Option A: Anti hypertensive
Option B: Antidiabetic
Option C: Antipalatelet
Option D: Anticoagulant
Correct Answer: Antipalatelet ✔
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Option A: B-blocker
Option B: Glucocorticoids
Option C: Acetylcholine
Option D: a-blockers
Correct Answer: Glucocorticoids ✔
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Option A: Hypoglycemic episodes in diabetes
Option B: Worsening of preexisting asthma
Option C: Ischemic cardiac episode on abrupt discontinuation
Option D: Precipitate migrainic effect
Correct Answer: Precipitate migrainic effect ✔
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Option A: Iron dextran
Option B: Iron Sorbitol Citrate Solution
Option C: ferrous Sulphate
Option D: ferrous Humourate
Correct Answer: Iron dextran ✔
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Option A: Blocking acetylcholine receptors
Option B: Prevent release of acetyl choline
Option C: Destroys acetyl choline
Option D: Inactivate acetylcholine esterase enzyme
Correct Answer: Blocking acetylcholine receptors ✔
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Option A: Propofol
Option B: Sevofluorane
Option C: Naloxane
Option D: Flumizenil
Correct Answer: Propofol ✔
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Option A: d-tubecurarine
Option B: Acetycholine
Option C: Atracurium
Option D: Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: Atracurium ✔
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Option A: Edrophonium
Option B: Demecarium
Option C: Carbaryl
Option D: Tacrine
Correct Answer: Carbaryl ✔
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Option A: Atropine
Option B: Neostigmine
Option C: Scopalamine
Option D: Ephedrine
Correct Answer: Neostigmine ✔
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Option A: Organophosphate poisoning
Option B: Chronic glaucoma
Option C: Syncope
Option D: Trigeminal neuralgia
Correct Answer: Organophosphate poisoning ✔
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Option A: Decreased blood pleasure caused by hexamethonium
Option B: Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine
Option C: Tachycardia caused by exercise
Option D: Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine
Correct Answer: Decreased blood pleasure caused by hexamethonium ✔
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Option A: Epinephrine
Option B: Succinylcholine
Option C: Tetracycline
Option D: Sulfonamides
Correct Answer: Epinephrine ✔
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Option A: Dicumarol
Option B: Idphenadione
Option C: Heparin
Option D: Phenindone
Correct Answer: Heparin ✔
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Option A: Prevents synthesis of prothrombin
Option B: Prevents synthesis of fibrinogen
Option C: Prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
Option D: Prevents prothrombin conversion to thrombin
Correct Answer: Prevents prothrombin conversion to thrombin ✔
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Option A: Warfarin
Option B: Insultin
Option C: Glibeneclamide
Option D: Gluengon
Correct Answer: Glibeneclamide ✔
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Option A: It is taken orally
Option B: It is used in type-I diabetes mellitus
Option C: It causes alcohol intolerance
Option D: It acts on pancreas to stimulate release of insulin
Correct Answer: It is used in type-I diabetes mellitus ✔
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Option A: Miosis
Option B: Yawning
Option C: Lacrimation
Option D: Diarrhoea
Correct Answer: Miosis ✔
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Option A: Transient hypercoagulability is seen
Option B: Better avoided during pregnancy as it may causes skeletal deformity of the foetus
Option C: In a racemic mixture the R form is four times more active than the S form
Option D: The anticoagulant effect is seen only after 72 hours of administration
Correct Answer: In a racemic mixture the R form is four times more active than the S form ✔
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Option A: Phenylbutazone
Option B: Vitamin K
Option C: Rifampicin
Option D: B & C
Correct Answer: B & C ✔
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Option A: Anti-inflaqmmatory drug
Option B: Antibiotic
Option C: Anti-arthritic drug
Option D: Antiplatelet drug
Correct Answer: Antiplatelet drug ✔
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Option A: Astrigents
Option B: Styptics
Option C: Haemostatics
Option D: All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above ✔
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In which of the following categories are ephedrine, tyramine and emphetamine classified__________?
Option A: Anticholinesterases
Option B: Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents
Option C: Indirect acting sympathomimetics
Option D: Direct acting sympathomimetics
Correct Answer: Indirect acting sympathomimetics ✔
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Option A: Motion sickness
Option B: Hypertension
Option C: Decreased secretions
Option D: A & C
Correct Answer: A & C ✔
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Option A: Succinylcholine
Option B: Pancuronium
Option C: Mivacurum
Option D: Decamethonium
Correct Answer: Mivacurum ✔
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Option A: Depolarising block
Option B: Direct muscle relaxation
Option C: Centrally acting muscle relaxation
Option D: Dual action
Correct Answer: Depolarising block ✔
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Option A: Vaso dilator
Option B: Vaso constrictor
Option C: Neuroleptic
Option D: Anti coagulant
Correct Answer: Vaso constrictor ✔
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Option A: Agranulocytosis
Option B: Aplastic anaemia
Option C: Aaemolysis
Option D: Leukaemia
Correct Answer: Leukaemia ✔
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Option A: Aspirin
Option B: Penicillinium
Option C: Amino epsilon caproic acid
Option D: Dipheny 1 hydantoin
Correct Answer: Aspirin ✔
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Option A: Chlorozoxazone
Option B: Methocarbomol
Option C: Succinyl choline
Option D: Cortisopradol
Correct Answer: Succinyl choline ✔
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Which of the following receptors is activated by acetylcholine and blocked by atropine__________?
Option A: Nicotinic
Option B: Muscarinic
Option C: Alpha 1 and 2
Option D: Beta 1 and 2
Correct Answer: Muscarinic ✔
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Option A: D-tubocuraine
Option B: Succinyl choline
Option C: Pancuronium
Option D: Gallamine
Correct Answer: Succinyl choline ✔
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Option A: Intravenous anaesthetic agent
Option B: Non-depolarizing muscle relaxant
Option C: Short-acting narcotic
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: None of the above ✔
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Option A: Inhibits cellular respiration in mitochondria
Option B: Excreted unchanged in urine
Option C: Reduce hepatic glucose production
Option D: Used in decompensated heart failure
Correct Answer: Used in decompensated heart failure ✔
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Option A: Pancuronium
Option B: Rocuronium
Option C: Vecuronium
Option D: Atracurium
Correct Answer: Pancuronium ✔
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Option A: Increases salivary secretions
Option B: Decrease salivary secreations
Option C: Indicator dye for sialography
Option D: Medication for over function
Correct Answer: Increases salivary secretions ✔
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Option A: With xylocaine
Option B: Post extraction socket
Option C: Anaphylactin shock
Option D: Angina in dental chair
Correct Answer: Both B & D ✔
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Option A: Insulin
Option B: Estrogen
Option C: Vitamin D
Option D: Glucocorticoid
Correct Answer: Insulin ✔
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Option A: Tranexamic acid
Option B: Clopidogrel
Option C: Aminocarproic Acid
Option D: Factor VIII cryoprecipitate
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel ✔
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Option A: Glyburide
Option B: Repaglinide
Option C: Tolbutamide
Option D: Biguanide
Correct Answer: Biguanide ✔
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Option A: Hypertension
Option B: Hypotension
Option C: Doesn’t release histamine
Option D: Oral route of administration is the best route
Correct Answer: Hypotension ✔
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Option A: Chlorpropamide
Option B: Glibenclamide
Option C: Glicazide
Option D: Glipizide
Correct Answer: Chlorpropamide ✔
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Option A: Hydrocortisone
Option B: Spironolactone
Option C: Dexamethsone
Option D: Fludrocortisone
Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone ✔
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All of the following are endogenous corticosteriods released by all adrenal cortex EXCEPT__________?
Option A: Cortisol
Option B: Cortisone
Option C: Dexamethsone
Option D: Aldosterone
Correct Answer: Dexamethsone ✔
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Option A: Hypertension
Option B: Amxiety
Option C: Peripheral Vascular disease
Option D: Benign Prostatic hypertrophy
Correct Answer: Amxiety ✔
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Option A: Doxacurim
Option B: Decamethonium
Option C: Rocuronium
Option D: Mivacurium
Correct Answer: Decamethonium ✔
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Option A: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
Option B: Serotonergic receptors
Option C: Dopaminergic receptors
Option D: GABA receptors
Correct Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors ✔
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Option A: Sedatives
Option B: Vasoconstrictors
Option C: Antisialogogues
Option D: Local anaesthetic
Correct Answer: Antisialogogues ✔
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Option A: Epinephrine
Option B: Lidnocaine
Option C: Hydrocortisone
Option D: Dicoumarol
Correct Answer: Epinephrine ✔
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Option A: Focus of action
Option B: Onset and duration of action
Option C: Mode of biotransformation
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Onset and duration of action ✔
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Option A: Cause increase in B.P, due to its action on Beta receptors only
Option B: Cause decrease in B.P, due to its action on Alpha receptors only
Option C: Cause decrease in cardiac output and relax bradycardia
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Cause increase in B.P, due to its action on Beta receptors only ✔
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Option A: Epinephrine
Option B: Norepinephrine
Option C: Phenyleprine
Option D: Leuonordefrin
Correct Answer: Epinephrine ✔
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Option A: Warfarin sodium
Option B: Sodium oxalate
Option C: Heparin
Option D: Phenindone
Correct Answer: Heparin ✔
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Option A: Pregnancy
Option B: Nephrotic syndorme
Option C: Newborn
Option D: Liver disease
Correct Answer: Both A & B ✔
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Option A: Hepatic necrosis
Option B: Permanent sterility
Option C: Thromboembolic disorders
Option D: Cancer of breast
Correct Answer: Thromboembolic disorders ✔
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Option A: Ethosuxinide
Option B: Tolbutamide
Option C: Glibenclamide
Option D: Gluengon
Correct Answer: Glibenclamide ✔
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Option A: Steroids reduce the rate of repair of tissues thus delays the healing
Option B: Exacerbate the inflammatory response
Option C: Can be safely given to immunocompromised patients
Option D: Indicated in oral thrush
Correct Answer: Steroids reduce the rate of repair of tissues thus delays the healing ✔
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Option A: Bupivacaine
Option B: Procaine
Option C: Lidocaine
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: None of the above ✔
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Option A: Rifampicin
Option B: Amoxycillin
Option C: Erythromycin
Option D: Tetracycline
Correct Answer: Rifampicin ✔
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Option A: Protamine sultate
Option B: Vitamin K
Option C: Factor VIII
Option D: EADA
Correct Answer: Protamine sultate ✔
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Option A: Binding to calcium
Option B: Inhibiting fibrinogen synthesis
Option C: Inhibiting prothrombin synthesis
Option D: Inhibiting thrombin synthesis
Correct Answer: Inhibiting thrombin synthesis ✔
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Option A: Human thrombin
Option B: Heparin
Option C: Ferric chloride
Option D: Vit-K
Correct Answer: Heparin ✔
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Option A: Increased liver glycogenolysis
Option B: Causes broachiolar constriction
Option C: Evokes extrasystoles in the heart
Option D: Produces restlessness and anxiety
Correct Answer: Causes broachiolar constriction ✔
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Option A: Penicillinase
Option B: Protamine sulphate
Option C: Pryosulphate
Option D: Potassium sulphate
Correct Answer: Protamine sulphate ✔
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Option A: Testosterone
Option B: Parathyroid
Option C: Insulin
Option D: Thyroid
Correct Answer: Thyroid ✔
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Option A: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma
Option B: Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase
Option C: Inhibits sweat and lacrimation
Option D: Causes tachycardia
Correct Answer: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma ✔
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Option A: Atropine
Option B: Diazepam
Option C: Neostigmine
Option D: Succinylcholine
Correct Answer: Succinylcholine ✔
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Option A: Corticosteroids
Option B: Antihistamines
Option C: Adrenalin
Option D: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Adrenalin ✔
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Option A: Antacids
Option B: Benzodiazepine
Option C: Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen
Option D: Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol
Correct Answer: C. Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen ✔
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Option A: Mydriasis
Option B: Contraction of urinary spinctors
Option C: Vasoconstriction
Option D: Bronchial muscle relaxation
Correct Answer: Bronchial muscle relaxation ✔
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Option A: All beta-adrenergic receptors
Option B: Dopaminergic receptors
Option C: Beta 2 receptors
Option D: Opioid receptors
Correct Answer: All beta-adrenergic receptors ✔
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Option A: choline, adrenaline and amphetamine
Option B: Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine
Option C: Pancuronium, rocuronium
Option D: Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline
Correct Answer: Pancuronium, rocuronium ✔
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Option A: D-tubocurarine
Option B: Gallamine triethiodide
Option C: Pancuronium bromide
Option D: Succinylcholine
Correct Answer: Succinylcholine ✔
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Option A: Bradycardia
Option B: Decreased Salivation
Option C: Decreased Sweating
Option D: Mydriasis
Correct Answer: Bradycardia ✔
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