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Pharmacology MCQs

Option A: Activating receptors on beta cells of pancreas to release insulin

Option B: Inhibiting gluconeogenesis in liver

Option C: Enhancing insulin mediated post receptor enzyme reaction

Option D: Decreasing Glucose absorption from the qut

Correct Answer: Decreasing Glucose absorption from the qut


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Option A: Regulates vasomotor tone

Option B: Acts via cAMP

Option C: Present in cigarette smoke

Option D: It is important in penile erection

Correct Answer: Acts via cAMP


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Option A: Anti hypertensive

Option B: Antidiabetic

Option C: Antipalatelet

Option D: Anticoagulant

Correct Answer: Antipalatelet


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Option A: B-blocker

Option B: Glucocorticoids

Option C: Acetylcholine

Option D: a-blockers

Correct Answer: Glucocorticoids


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Option A: Hypoglycemic episodes in diabetes

Option B: Worsening of preexisting asthma

Option C: Ischemic cardiac episode on abrupt discontinuation

Option D: Precipitate migrainic effect

Correct Answer: Precipitate migrainic effect


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Option A: Iron dextran

Option B: Iron Sorbitol Citrate Solution

Option C: ferrous Sulphate

Option D: ferrous Humourate

Correct Answer: Iron dextran


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Option A: Blocking acetylcholine receptors

Option B: Prevent release of acetyl choline

Option C: Destroys acetyl choline

Option D: Inactivate acetylcholine esterase enzyme

Correct Answer: Blocking acetylcholine receptors


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Option A: Propofol

Option B: Sevofluorane

Option C: Naloxane

Option D: Flumizenil

Correct Answer: Propofol


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Option A: d-tubecurarine

Option B: Acetycholine

Option C: Atracurium

Option D: Acetazolamide

Correct Answer: Atracurium


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Option A: Edrophonium

Option B: Demecarium

Option C: Carbaryl

Option D: Tacrine

Correct Answer: Carbaryl


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Option A: Atropine

Option B: Neostigmine

Option C: Scopalamine

Option D: Ephedrine

Correct Answer: Neostigmine


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Option A: Organophosphate poisoning

Option B: Chronic glaucoma

Option C: Syncope

Option D: Trigeminal neuralgia

Correct Answer: Organophosphate poisoning


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Option A: Decreased blood pleasure caused by hexamethonium

Option B: Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine

Option C: Tachycardia caused by exercise

Option D: Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

Correct Answer: Decreased blood pleasure caused by hexamethonium


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Option A: Epinephrine

Option B: Succinylcholine

Option C: Tetracycline

Option D: Sulfonamides

Correct Answer: Epinephrine


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Option A: Dicumarol

Option B: Idphenadione

Option C: Heparin

Option D: Phenindone

Correct Answer: Heparin


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Option A: Prevents synthesis of prothrombin

Option B: Prevents synthesis of fibrinogen

Option C: Prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

Option D: Prevents prothrombin conversion to thrombin

Correct Answer: Prevents prothrombin conversion to thrombin


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Option A: Warfarin

Option B: Insultin

Option C: Glibeneclamide

Option D: Gluengon

Correct Answer: Glibeneclamide


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Option A: It is taken orally

Option B: It is used in type-I diabetes mellitus

Option C: It causes alcohol intolerance

Option D: It acts on pancreas to stimulate release of insulin

Correct Answer: It is used in type-I diabetes mellitus


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Option A: Miosis

Option B: Yawning

Option C: Lacrimation

Option D: Diarrhoea

Correct Answer: Miosis


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Option A: Transient hypercoagulability is seen

Option B: Better avoided during pregnancy as it may causes skeletal deformity of the foetus

Option C: In a racemic mixture the R form is four times more active than the S form

Option D: The anticoagulant effect is seen only after 72 hours of administration

Correct Answer: In a racemic mixture the R form is four times more active than the S form


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Option A: Phenylbutazone

Option B: Vitamin K

Option C: Rifampicin

Option D: B & C

Correct Answer: B & C


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Option A: Anti-inflaqmmatory drug

Option B: Antibiotic

Option C: Anti-arthritic drug

Option D: Antiplatelet drug

Correct Answer: Antiplatelet drug


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Option A: Astrigents

Option B: Styptics

Option C: Haemostatics

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Anticholinesterases

Option B: Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents

Option C: Indirect acting sympathomimetics

Option D: Direct acting sympathomimetics

Correct Answer: Indirect acting sympathomimetics


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Option A: Motion sickness

Option B: Hypertension

Option C: Decreased secretions

Option D: A & C

Correct Answer: A & C


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Option A: Succinylcholine

Option B: Pancuronium

Option C: Mivacurum

Option D: Decamethonium

Correct Answer: Mivacurum


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Option A: Depolarising block

Option B: Direct muscle relaxation

Option C: Centrally acting muscle relaxation

Option D: Dual action

Correct Answer: Depolarising block


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Option A: Vaso dilator

Option B: Vaso constrictor

Option C: Neuroleptic

Option D: Anti coagulant

Correct Answer: Vaso constrictor


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Option A: Agranulocytosis

Option B: Aplastic anaemia

Option C: Aaemolysis

Option D: Leukaemia

Correct Answer: Leukaemia


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Option A: Aspirin

Option B: Penicillinium

Option C: Amino epsilon caproic acid

Option D: Dipheny 1 hydantoin

Correct Answer: Aspirin


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Option A: Chlorozoxazone

Option B: Methocarbomol

Option C: Succinyl choline

Option D: Cortisopradol

Correct Answer: Succinyl choline


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Option A: Nicotinic

Option B: Muscarinic

Option C: Alpha 1 and 2

Option D: Beta 1 and 2

Correct Answer: Muscarinic


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Option A: D-tubocuraine

Option B: Succinyl choline

Option C: Pancuronium

Option D: Gallamine

Correct Answer: Succinyl choline


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Option A: Intravenous anaesthetic agent

Option B: Non-depolarizing muscle relaxant

Option C: Short-acting narcotic

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: None of the above


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Option A: Inhibits cellular respiration in mitochondria

Option B: Excreted unchanged in urine

Option C: Reduce hepatic glucose production

Option D: Used in decompensated heart failure

Correct Answer: Used in decompensated heart failure


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Option A: Pancuronium

Option B: Rocuronium

Option C: Vecuronium

Option D: Atracurium

Correct Answer: Pancuronium


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Option A: Increases salivary secretions

Option B: Decrease salivary secreations

Option C: Indicator dye for sialography

Option D: Medication for over function

Correct Answer: Increases salivary secretions


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Option A: With xylocaine

Option B: Post extraction socket

Option C: Anaphylactin shock

Option D: Angina in dental chair

Correct Answer: Both B & D


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Option A: Insulin

Option B: Estrogen

Option C: Vitamin D

Option D: Glucocorticoid

Correct Answer: Insulin


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Option A: Tranexamic acid

Option B: Clopidogrel

Option C: Aminocarproic Acid

Option D: Factor VIII cryoprecipitate

Correct Answer: Clopidogrel


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Option A: Glyburide

Option B: Repaglinide

Option C: Tolbutamide

Option D: Biguanide

Correct Answer: Biguanide


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Option A: Hypertension

Option B: Hypotension

Option C: Doesn’t release histamine

Option D: Oral route of administration is the best route

Correct Answer: Hypotension


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Option A: Chlorpropamide

Option B: Glibenclamide

Option C: Glicazide

Option D: Glipizide

Correct Answer: Chlorpropamide


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Option A: Hydrocortisone

Option B: Spironolactone

Option C: Dexamethsone

Option D: Fludrocortisone

Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone


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Option A: Cortisol

Option B: Cortisone

Option C: Dexamethsone

Option D: Aldosterone

Correct Answer: Dexamethsone


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Option A: Hypertension

Option B: Amxiety

Option C: Peripheral Vascular disease

Option D: Benign Prostatic hypertrophy

Correct Answer: Amxiety


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Option A: Doxacurim

Option B: Decamethonium

Option C: Rocuronium

Option D: Mivacurium

Correct Answer: Decamethonium


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Option A: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

Option B: Serotonergic receptors

Option C: Dopaminergic receptors

Option D: GABA receptors

Correct Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors


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Option A: Sedatives

Option B: Vasoconstrictors

Option C: Antisialogogues

Option D: Local anaesthetic

Correct Answer: Antisialogogues


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Option A: Epinephrine

Option B: Lidnocaine

Option C: Hydrocortisone

Option D: Dicoumarol

Correct Answer: Epinephrine


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Option A: Focus of action

Option B: Onset and duration of action

Option C: Mode of biotransformation

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Onset and duration of action


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Option A: Cause increase in B.P, due to its action on Beta receptors only

Option B: Cause decrease in B.P, due to its action on Alpha receptors only

Option C: Cause decrease in cardiac output and relax bradycardia

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Cause increase in B.P, due to its action on Beta receptors only


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Option A: Epinephrine

Option B: Norepinephrine

Option C: Phenyleprine

Option D: Leuonordefrin

Correct Answer: Epinephrine


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Option A: Warfarin sodium

Option B: Sodium oxalate

Option C: Heparin

Option D: Phenindone

Correct Answer: Heparin


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Option A: Pregnancy

Option B: Nephrotic syndorme

Option C: Newborn

Option D: Liver disease

Correct Answer: Both A & B


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Option A: Hepatic necrosis

Option B: Permanent sterility

Option C: Thromboembolic disorders

Option D: Cancer of breast

Correct Answer: Thromboembolic disorders


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Option A: Ethosuxinide

Option B: Tolbutamide

Option C: Glibenclamide

Option D: Gluengon

Correct Answer: Glibenclamide


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Option A: Steroids reduce the rate of repair of tissues thus delays the healing

Option B: Exacerbate the inflammatory response

Option C: Can be safely given to immunocompromised patients

Option D: Indicated in oral thrush

Correct Answer: Steroids reduce the rate of repair of tissues thus delays the healing


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Option A: Bupivacaine

Option B: Procaine

Option C: Lidocaine

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: None of the above


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Option A: Rifampicin

Option B: Amoxycillin

Option C: Erythromycin

Option D: Tetracycline

Correct Answer: Rifampicin


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Option A: Protamine sultate

Option B: Vitamin K

Option C: Factor VIII

Option D: EADA

Correct Answer: Protamine sultate


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Option A: Binding to calcium

Option B: Inhibiting fibrinogen synthesis

Option C: Inhibiting prothrombin synthesis

Option D: Inhibiting thrombin synthesis

Correct Answer: Inhibiting thrombin synthesis


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Option A: Human thrombin

Option B: Heparin

Option C: Ferric chloride

Option D: Vit-K

Correct Answer: Heparin


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Option A: Increased liver glycogenolysis

Option B: Causes broachiolar constriction

Option C: Evokes extrasystoles in the heart

Option D: Produces restlessness and anxiety

Correct Answer: Causes broachiolar constriction


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Option A: Penicillinase

Option B: Protamine sulphate

Option C: Pryosulphate

Option D: Potassium sulphate

Correct Answer: Protamine sulphate


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Option A: Testosterone

Option B: Parathyroid

Option C: Insulin

Option D: Thyroid

Correct Answer: Thyroid


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Option A: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma

Option B: Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase

Option C: Inhibits sweat and lacrimation

Option D: Causes tachycardia

Correct Answer: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma


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Option A: Atropine

Option B: Diazepam

Option C: Neostigmine

Option D: Succinylcholine

Correct Answer: Succinylcholine


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Option A: Corticosteroids

Option B: Antihistamines

Option C: Adrenalin

Option D: Diazepam

Correct Answer: Adrenalin


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Option A: Antacids

Option B: Benzodiazepine

Option C: Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen

Option D: Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol

Correct Answer: C. Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen


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Option A: Mydriasis

Option B: Contraction of urinary spinctors

Option C: Vasoconstriction

Option D: Bronchial muscle relaxation

Correct Answer: Bronchial muscle relaxation


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Option A: All beta-adrenergic receptors

Option B: Dopaminergic receptors

Option C: Beta 2 receptors

Option D: Opioid receptors

Correct Answer: All beta-adrenergic receptors


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Option A: choline, adrenaline and amphetamine

Option B: Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine

Option C: Pancuronium, rocuronium

Option D: Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline

Correct Answer: Pancuronium, rocuronium


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Option A: D-tubocurarine

Option B: Gallamine triethiodide

Option C: Pancuronium bromide

Option D: Succinylcholine

Correct Answer: Succinylcholine


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Option A: Bradycardia

Option B: Decreased Salivation

Option C: Decreased Sweating

Option D: Mydriasis

Correct Answer: Bradycardia


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