Medical MCQs

Option A: Pentazocine and buprinorphine

Option B: Pentazocine shows withdrawal symptoms in opioid dependent patients

Option C: Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects

Option D: Ethomorphine is similar to pethidine chemically

Correct Answer: Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects ✔

Option A: D-tubocurarin

Option B: Diazepam

Option C: Beclofen

Option D: Mephensin

Correct Answer: D-tubocurarin ✔

Option A: Antibiotic

Option B: Sedative

Option C: Tricyclic antidepressant

Option D: Diuretic

Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant ✔

Option A: Excretion

Option B: Metabolism

Option C: Redistribution

Option D: Recycling

Correct Answer: Redistribution ✔

Option A: Produce muscle relaxation

Option B: Alter psychotic behaviour

Option C: Suppress coughing

Option D: Produce analgesia

Correct Answer: Alter psychotic behaviour ✔

Option A: Buspirone

Option B: Nitrazepam

Option C: Zopiclone

Option D: Diazepam

Correct Answer: Buspirone ✔

Option A: Diazepam

Option B: Sodium nitroprusside

Option C: Glyceryl trinitrite

Option D: Pheno barbital

Correct Answer: Diazepam ✔

Option A: peptic ulcer

Option B: Bleeding defects

Option C: Carcinoma

Option D: A & B

Correct Answer: A & B ✔

Option A: Agranulocytosis

Option B: Hemolytic anemia

Option C: Aplastic anemia

Option D: Hypoprothrombinemia

Correct Answer: Hypoprothrombinemia ✔

Option A: Vitamin K

Option B: Barbiturates

Option C: Acetominophen

Option D: Acetyl salicylic acid

Correct Answer: Acetyl salicylic acid ✔

Option A: It inhibits thromboxanes

Option B: It stimulates Prostacyclins

Option C: It is a vasodilator

Option D: Ithelps in reducing inflammatory aggregate

Correct Answer: It inhibits thromboxanes ✔

Option A: Naloxone

Option B: Nalosphine

Option C: Nalpuphine

Option D: Methadine

Correct Answer: Naloxone ✔

Option A: Remifentanil

Option B: Morphine

Option C: Sufentanil

Option D: Fentanyl

Correct Answer: Remifentanil ✔

Option A: Analgesia is associated with μ and k receptors

Option B: Dysphoria is associated with S receptors

Option C: NSAIDS benefit by preventing prostaglandin synthesis

Option D: Naloxane is a non-competitive antagonist and irreversibly opposes the opioids

Correct Answer: Naloxane is a non-competitive antagonist and irreversibly opposes the opioids ✔

Option A: Reye’s syndrome

Option B: Nausea

Option C: Diarrhoea

Option D: Acid-base imbalance

Correct Answer: A. Reye’s syndrome ✔

Option A: Respiratory alkalosis

Option B: Haemorrhage

Option C: Hepatic necrosis

Option D: Gastric Ulceration

Correct Answer: Hepatic necrosis ✔

Option A: Aspirin

Option B: Ibuprufen

Option C: Diclofenac potassium

Option D: Mefenamic acid

Correct Answer: Both A & B ✔

Option A: Diphenhydramine

Option B: Atropine

Option C: Naloxane

Option D: Nalorphine

Correct Answer: Naloxane ✔

Option A: Limbic system

Option B: Emetic system

Option C: Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)

Option D: Opioid receptors in G.I.T

Correct Answer: Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) ✔

Option A: Diazepam administration

Option B: Digitalis toxicity

Option C: Paget’s disease

Option D: Unconscious states

Correct Answer: Diazepam administration ✔

Option A: Drowsiness

Option B: Gastric irritation

Option C: Xerostomia

Option D: Constipation

Correct Answer: Gastric irritation ✔

Option A: CNS stimulation

Option B: Muscle fasciculation

Option C: CNS depression

Option D: Decreased salivation

Correct Answer: Muscle fasciculation ✔

Option A: Frank gastric bleeding

Option B: Prolonged prothrombin time

Option C: Platelet dysfunction

Option D: Constipation

Correct Answer: Constipation ✔

Option A: Benzodiazepam is used in treatment of status epilepticus

Option B: Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders

Option C: Clonazeppam is used in the treatment of petitmal epilepsy

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders ✔

Option A: Morphine

Option B: Fentanyl

Option C: Remifentanil

Option D: Sufentanil

Correct Answer: Remifentanil ✔

Option A: Increase BT

Option B: Increase CT

Option C: Increase PTT

Option D: Increase APTT

Correct Answer: Increase BT ✔

Option A: Less thrombophlebitis due to low solubility in blond

Option B: More plasma binding and less toxicity

Option C: More potent than diazepam

Option D: Binds to benzodiazepine receptors with 3-4 time more avidly

Correct Answer: Binds to benzodiazepine receptors with 3-4 time more avidly ✔

Option A: Prostaglandin synthesis

Option B: Ectoglandin synthesis

Option C: Preglandin synthesis

Option D: Costaglandin synthesis

Correct Answer: Prostaglandin synthesis ✔

Option A: Aspirin and Codeine

Option B: Paracetamol and Dextropropoxyphene

Option C: Ibuprofen and Paracetamol

Option D: Ibuprofen and DIclofenac

Correct Answer: Ibuprofen and DIclofenac ✔

Option A: Chlorpheniramine

Option B: Chlorpromazine

Option C: Chloroquine

Option D: Chlorhexidine

Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine ✔

Option A: Acetaminophen

Option B: Aspirin

Option C: Ibuprofen

Option D: Diclofenac Sodium

Correct Answer: Acetaminophen ✔

Option A: Olanzepine

Option B: Clozapine

Option C: Risperidone

Option D: Thioridazone

Correct Answer: Thioridazone ✔

Option A: Flumazenil

Option B: Furazolidone

Option C: Naloxone

Option D: Naltrexone

Correct Answer: Flumazenil ✔

Option A: Bromocriptine

Option B: Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

Option C: Ketanserin

Option D: Methysergide

Correct Answer: Ketanserin ✔

Option A: Produce distortion in sleep more than other sedatives

Option B: More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts

Option C: After metabolism of other drugs in liver

Option D: All have metabolically active substrates

Correct Answer: More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts ✔

Option A: Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction

Option B: It causes dilatation of skeletal muscles

Option C: Post ganglionic fibres are longer than pre ganglionic fibres

Option D: Noradrenalin is the neurotransmitter at post ganglionic junction

Correct Answer: Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction ✔

Option A: They depress ALA synthase

Option B: They inhibit ALA synthase

Option C: They induce heme oxygenase

Option D: They inhibit heme oxygenase

Correct Answer: They depress ALA synthase ✔

Option A: The analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects identical to that of Non-selective NSAID

Option B: They do not offer the cardio protective effect

Option C: Safe in patients with renal insufficiency

Option D: Fewer incidence of gastrointestinal side effect

Correct Answer: Safe in patients with renal insufficiency ✔

Option A: Atracurium

Option B: Vecuronium

Option C: Rocuronium

Option D: Doxacurium

Correct Answer: Doxacurium ✔

Option A: Diarrhea

Option B: Lacrimation

Option C: Mydriasis

Option D: Excessive speech

Correct Answer: Excessive speech ✔

Option A: Mu receptor antagonist

Option B: Kappa receptor antagonist

Option C: Mu receptor partial agnoist

Option D: Kappa receptor partial agonist

Correct Answer: Mu receptor partial agnoist ✔

Option A: Meprobamate

Option B: Pentobarbital

Option C: Trimethadione

Option D: Phenytoin

Correct Answer: Phenytoin ✔

Option A: Tranquilizers

Option B: Non-barbiturates

Option C: Synthetic narcotics

Option D: Antidepressants

Correct Answer: Synthetic narcotics ✔

Option A: Phentoin sodium

Option B: Carbamazepine

Option C: Phenobarbitone

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: None of the above ✔

Option A: A marked increase in blood pressure

Option B: Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use

Option C: Suppression of prolacin

Option D: Nausea

Correct Answer: Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use ✔

Option A: Indomenthacin

Option B: Salicylates

Option C: Dypyradimole

Option D: Phenobarbitone

Correct Answer: Phenobarbitone ✔

Option A: It delay onset of labour

Option B: Causes pulmonary hypertension of newborn

Option C: Readily croses placental barrier

Option D: All of these

Correct Answer: All of these ✔

Option A: Ibuprofen

Option B: Indomethacin

Option C: Aspirin

Option D: B & C

Correct Answer: B & C ✔

Option A: Cerebral cortex

Option B: Corpus callosum

Option C: Hypothalamus

Option D: Spinal cord

Correct Answer: Cerebral cortex ✔

Option A: Phenobarbitonse

Option B: Dilantoin sodium

Option C: Diazepam

Option D: Ethosuximide

Correct Answer: Ethosuximide ✔

Option A: Phenylbutazone

Option B: Piroxicam

Option C: Aspirin

Option D: Ibuprofen

Correct Answer: Piroxicam ✔

Option A: Renal failure

Option B: Liver failure

Option C: Respiratory failure

Option D: Convulsions

Correct Answer: Respiratory failure ✔

Option A: Formaldehyde

Option B: Acetaldehyde

Option C: Propanaldehyde

Option D: Butanaldehyde

Correct Answer: Acetaldehyde ✔

Option A: Rifampicin

Option B: Isoniazide

Option C: Pyrazamide

Option D: Ethambutol

Correct Answer: Ethambutol ✔

Option A: Antidepressant

Option B: Antinflammatory

Option C: Antibiotic

Option D: Antiemetic

Correct Answer: Antidepressant ✔

Option A: Left ventricular failure

Option B: Bronchial asthma

Option C: Constipation

Option D: A & C

Correct Answer: A & C ✔

Option A: Acetylcholine

Option B: Ergotamine

Option C: Morphine

Option D: Ibuprofen

Correct Answer: Ergotamine ✔

Option A: Alprozolam

Option B: Zolpidem

Option C: Lorazepam

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Lorazepam ✔

Option A: Nifedipine

Option B: Erythromycin

Option C: Cyclosporin

Option D: Aspirin

Correct Answer: Both A & C ✔

Option A: Bradycardia

Option B: Decreased salivation

Option C: Decreased sweating

Option D: Mydriasis

Correct Answer: Bradycardia ✔

Option A: Meprobamate

Option B: Pentobarbitone

Option C: Thiopentone

Option D: Phenobarbitone

Correct Answer: Thiopentone ✔

Option A: Substantia gelatinosa

Option B: Limbic system

Option C: Medulla

Option D: Cortex

Correct Answer: Substantia gelatinosa ✔

Option A: Bone

Option B: Kidney

Option C: Liver

Option D: Stomach

Correct Answer: Stomach ✔

Option A: Roxatidine

Option B: Pirenzipine

Option C: Betaxolol

Option D: Misoprostol

Correct Answer: Misoprostol ✔

Option A: Hypoprothrombinemia

Option B: Hyperprothrombinemia

Option C: Hyprphosphatasia

Option D: Hypercalcemia

Correct Answer: Hypoprothrombinemia ✔

Option A: Crystalluria

Option B: Rye’s syndrome

Option C: Kernicterus

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: B. Rye’s syndrome ✔

Option A: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase path way

Option B: Prolonged bleeding time

Option C: Inhibition of thromboxane TXA2

Option D: Inhibition of prostaglandin PGI2

Correct Answer: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase path way ✔

Option A: Aspirin

Option B: Ketoprofen

Option C: Rofecoxib

Option D: Sulidec

Correct Answer: Rofecoxib ✔

Option A: Tetracycline

Option B: Paracetamol

Option C: Metronidazole

Option D: Barbiturates

Correct Answer: Paracetamol ✔

Option A: MI

Option B: Angina

Option C: Peptic ulcer

Option D: Hypertension

Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer ✔

Option A: Meloxicam

Option B: Naproxen

Option C: C0X2 specific inhibitors

Option D: Ibuprofen

Correct Answer: C0X2 specific inhibitors ✔

Option A: Ethosuximide

Option B: Phenobarbitone

Option C: Sodium valporate

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: None of the above ✔

Option A: Intravenously

Option B: By inhatation

Option C: Sub lingually

Option D: Orally

Correct Answer: Sub lingually ✔

Option A: Indomathecin (indocin)

Option B: Ibuprofen (Motrin)

Option C: Ketoroloc

Option D: Aceteminophen

Correct Answer: Indomathecin (indocin) ✔

Option A: Infertility

Option B: Parkinsonism

Option C: Tardive dyskinesia

Option D: B & C

Correct Answer: B & C ✔

Option A: Aspirin

Option B: Paracetamol

Option C: Diclofenac sodium

Option D: Ibuprofen

Correct Answer: Paracetamol ✔

Option A: Use in head injury patient

Option B: use in impaired pulmonary function

Option C: Use of agonist with mixed agonist-antagonist

Option D: Use in severe constant pain

Correct Answer: Use in severe constant pain ✔

Option A: Pulmonary oedema

Option B: Emphysema

Option C: Bronchial asthma

Option D: Head injury

Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema ✔

Option A: Phenobarbitone

Option B: Phenytoin sodium

Option C: Primidone

Option D: Carbamazepine

Correct Answer: Primidone ✔

Option A: Destroyed by gastric acid

Option B: Very active against sensitive gram positive cocci

Option C: Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis

Option D: More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluids

Correct Answer: More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluids ✔

Option A: Tetracycline

Option B: Thalidomide

Option C: Warfarin

Option D: Chloroquine

Correct Answer: Thalidomide ✔

Option A: Scavanges free radicals

Option B: Enhances the production of free radicals

Option C: Promotes damage of DNA

Option D: Prevents repair of damaged DNA

Correct Answer: Scavanges free radicals ✔

Option A: Prochlorperazine

Option B: Carbamezapine

Option C: Diphenhydramine

Option D: Ciprofloxacin

Correct Answer: Prochlorperazine ✔

Option A: Biodegradable

Option B: Bio-experiment

Option C: Bio-assay

Option D: Bio-statement

Correct Answer: Bio-assay ✔

Option A: Naloxone-Tricyclic antidepressant

Option B: Warfarin- Oral anticoagulant

Option C: Herbicide and earth materials – allergies

Option D: Acetaminophen – anti inflammatory

Correct Answer: Naloxone-Tricyclic antidepressant ✔

Option A: Isoxsuprine

Option B: Natrexam

Option C: Atosiban

Option D: Ritodrine

Correct Answer: Natrexam ✔

Option A: EDTA

Option B: DMSA

Option C: BAL

Option D: Penicillamine

Correct Answer: EDTA ✔

Option A: Anemia

Option B: Neutropenia

Option C: Malaria

Option D: Filariasis

Correct Answer: Neutropenia ✔

Option A: Promethazine

Option B: Diphenhydramine

Option C: Hydroxyzine

Option D: Loratidine

Correct Answer: Loratidine ✔

Option A: Penicillin G

Option B: Clindamycin

Option C: Metronidazole

Option D: Doxycycline

Correct Answer: Metronidazole ✔

Option A: Cyclophosphamide

Option B: Doxorubicin

Option C: Methotrexate

Option D: Cisplatin

Correct Answer: Methotrexate ✔

Option A: Lorazepam

Option B: Theophylline

Option C: Paracetamol

Option D: Metronidazole

Correct Answer: Lorazepam ✔

Option A: Used in trigeminal neuralgia

Option B: Carbamazepine is an enzyme inhibitor

Option C: Can cause megaloblastic anemia

Option D: It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus

Correct Answer: Used in trigeminal neuralgia ✔

Option A: Trannic acid

Option B: Gelatin foam

Option C: Adrenaline

Option D: Vitamin-K

Correct Answer: Vitamin-K ✔

Option A: It does not produce reflex tachycardia

Option B: It is less potent as a coronary vasodilator

Option C: It is contraindicated in patients with supraventicular tachycardia

Option D: It can cause constipation

Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in patients with supraventicular tachycardia ✔

Option A: It causes excertion of Na & Cl

Option B: It is used as an adjunct in epilepsy

Option C: It is very potent

Option D: It causes metabolic alkalosis

Correct Answer: It is used as an adjunct in epilepsy ✔

Option A: Grand mal epilepsy

Option B: Infantile spasm

Option C: Petit mal

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Petit mal ✔

Option A: H.pylori

Option B: C.difficile

Option C: K.pneumoniae

Option D: Shigella

Correct Answer: C.difficile ✔

Option A: Absolute alchohol

Option B: Quaternary ammonium compound

Option C: Sodium hypochlorite

Option D: Iodine compound

Correct Answer: Sodium hypochlorite ✔

Option A: Hydrochlorthiazide

Option B: Amiloride

Option C: Spironolactone

Option D: Acetazolamide

Correct Answer: Spironolactone ✔