Medical MCQs

Option A: Common cold

Option B: Systemic anaphylaxis

Option C: Motion sickness

Option D: Parkinsonism

Correct Answer: Parkinsonism ✔

Option A: 1 – 18 days

Option B: 19 – 55 days

Option C: 56 – 85 days

Option D: II trimester

Correct Answer: B. 19 – 55 days ✔

Option A: Diphenydramine

Option B: Promethazine

Option C: Terfenadine

Option D: Pyrilamine

Correct Answer: Terfenadine ✔

Option A: 50%

Option B: 65%

Option C: 70%

Option D: 95%

Correct Answer: 70% ✔

Option A: CCF

Option B: Esophageal spasm

Option C: Renal colic

Option D: Cyanide poisoning

Correct Answer: Renal colic ✔

Option A: Aspirin

Option B: Pencillins

Option C: Sulfonamides

Option D: Chloroquin

Correct Answer: Chloroquin ✔

Option A: Gargling

Option B: Dinisfect water in wells

Option C: Irrigating cavities

Option D: Cleaning surgical instruments

Correct Answer: Irrigating cavities ✔

Option A: Rifampicin

Option B: Isoniazid

Option C: Cefotaxime

Option D: Aminoglycoside

Correct Answer: Isoniazid ✔

Option A: Dextrose

Option B: Dilantine

Option C: Diazepam

Option D: Dopamine

Correct Answer: Dopamine ✔

Option A: Ephederine

Option B: Atropine

Option C: Propranolone

Option D: Morphine

Correct Answer: Atropine ✔

Option A: Cough

Option B: Headache

Option C: Drowsiness

Option D: Vertigo

Correct Answer: Drowsiness ✔

Option A: It is a topical antimicrobial

Option B: It is a topical anesthestic

Option C: Its ability to aid in blood coagulation

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: It is a topical antimicrobial ✔

Option A: Amitriptyline

Option B: Disopyrmide

Option C: Atenolol

Option D: Neostigmine

Correct Answer: Neostigmine ✔

Option A: Causes arteriolar dialation

Option B: causes bronchodialtion

Option C: Causes pain when injected subcutaneously

Option D: Is released following injury and in certain allergic responses

Correct Answer: causes bronchodialtion ✔

Option A: Lorazepam

Option B: Pirenzepine

Option C: Ranitidine

Option D: Chlorpheniramine

Correct Answer: Chlorpheniramine ✔

Option A: Displaces digoxine from its tissue binding sites

Option B: Displaces digoxin from its protein binding sites

Option C: Decrease the renal clearance of digoxin

Option D: Decreases the plasma potassium level

Correct Answer: Displaces digoxine from its tissue binding sites ✔

Option A: Hypothyroidism

Option B: Obesity

Option C: Hypotension

Option D: Tremors

Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism ✔

Option A: A special application of dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia

Option B: Interferons have a role in immunology of cancer

Option C: Thalidomide is used for the treatment of leprosy

Option D: Allopurinol is a derivative of 8-mercaptopurine

Correct Answer: Thalidomide is used for the treatment of leprosy ✔

Option A: Carcinoma forming tendency

Option B: Fetal malformation

Option C: Intolerance to a drug

Option D: Drug dependence

Correct Answer: Fetal malformation ✔

Option A: Spironolactone

Option B: Bumetainde

Option C: Triamtrence

Option D: Amelioride

Correct Answer: Bumetainde ✔

Option A: H1 histamine receptor antagonist

Option B: H2 histamine receptor antagonist

Option C: Adrenal steroids

Option D: Anticholinergic

Correct Answer: H2 histamine receptor antagonist ✔

Option A: Tramadol

Option B: Isoniazid

Option C: Levocetrizine

Option D: Tacrolimus

Correct Answer: Isoniazid ✔

Option A: Ethambutol

Option B: Ethylene glycol

Option C: Ciprofloxacin

Option D: Tetracycline

Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin ✔

Option A: Ethambutol

Option B: Ethylene glycol

Option C: Ciprofloxacin

Option D: Tetracycline

Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin ✔

Option A: UV light helps in formation

Option B: Increased parathyroid hormone secretion is seen in renal failure

Option C: Hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalcitenol occurs in kidney

Option D: 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is used in treatment of renal failure

Correct Answer: 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is used in treatment of renal failure ✔

Option A: Medroxyprogesterone

Option B: Norethindrone

Option C: Gestodene

Option D: Levonorgestrel

Correct Answer: Gestodene ✔

Option A: Carcinogens

Option B: Allergens

Option C: Nontherapeutic agents

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Nontherapeutic agents ✔

Option A: Alpha TNF receptors

Option B: IL-2 receptors

Option C: Tyrosin Kinase receptors

Option D: Inhibits Phosphodiesterase

Correct Answer: Tyrosin Kinase receptors ✔

Option A: Carbamazepine

Option B: Topiramate

Option C: Ethosuxamide

Option D: Phenobarbitone

Correct Answer: Topiramate ✔

Option A: Increase in IL-1

Option B: Increase in total amount of circulatory neutrophils

Option C: Anti-inflammatory effect is increased

Option D: Inhibit phospholipase A2

Correct Answer: Increase in IL-1 ✔

Option A: cAMP

Option B: cGMP

Option C: PDE-5

Option D: PGI2

Correct Answer: PDE-5 ✔

Option A: Montelukast

Option B: Zileuton

Option C: Nedocromil

Option D: Misopristol

Correct Answer: Montelukast ✔

Option A: They are fungistatic

Option B: They are hepatotoxic

Option C: Resistance to the drug is common

Option D: They affect the metabolism of drugs such as cyclosporine necessitating an increasing in dosage

Correct Answer: They affect the metabolism of drugs such as cyclosporine necessitating an increasing in dosage ✔

Option A: Doxycycline

Option B: Demeclocyline

Option C: Minocycline

Option D: Tetracycline

Correct Answer: Demeclocyline ✔

Option A: Metaclopramide

Option B: INH

Option C: Dapsone

Option D: Hydralazine

Correct Answer: Metaclopramide ✔

Option A: 5 alpha reductase inhibitor

Option B: PDE inhibitor

Option C: Alpha blocker

Option D: Androgen receptor blocker

Correct Answer: 5 alpha reductase inhibitor ✔

Option A: Osteoporosis

Option B: Disorders of coagulation

Option C: Laryngospasm

Option D: Extreme hyper-Kalemia

Correct Answer: Disorders of coagulation ✔

Option A: Head injury

Option B: Acute myocardial infarcation

Option C: Acute abdominal pain before diagnosis

Option D: Bronchial asthma

Correct Answer: Acute myocardial infarcation ✔

Option A: Hyoscine

Option B: Atropine

Option C: Adrenalin

Option D: Chlorpromazine

Correct Answer: Hyoscine ✔

Option A: Plasmin

Option B: Acetylsalicylic acid

Option C: Heparin

Option D: Prothrombin

Correct Answer: Heparin ✔

Option A: High K+ levels

Option B: High Ca2+ levels

Option C: High Na+ levels

Option D: Low K+ levels

Correct Answer: Low K+ levels ✔

Option A: Digoxin

Option B: Digitoxin

Option C: Ergotoxine

Option D: Gitoxin

Correct Answer: Ergotoxine ✔

Option A: Atropine

Option B: Neostigmine

Option C: Physostigmine

Option D: Scopolamine

Correct Answer: Neostigmine ✔

Option A: Pencillins

Option B: Sulfonamides

Option C: Certrizine

Option D: Cephalosporins

Correct Answer: Certrizine ✔

Option A: Prazequantal

Option B: Metronidazole

Option C: Niclosamide

Option D: Pyrantel

Correct Answer: Prazequantal ✔

Option A: Insulin

Option B: Chloral hydrate

Option C: Procaine

Option D: Streptomycin

Correct Answer: Chloral hydrate ✔

Option A: Acrivastine

Option B: Terfenadine

Option C: Lovocabastine

Option D: Cetrizine

Correct Answer: Terfenadine ✔

Option A: Bleeding gums

Option B: Alkaloidal poisoning

Option C: Toothache

Option D: Bleeding piles

Correct Answer: Toothache ✔

Option A: Animal charcoal

Option B: Glibenclamide

Option C: Chloral hydrate

Option D: Cefixime

Correct Answer: Animal charcoal ✔

Option A: Myocardial infarction

Option B: Epilepsy

Option C: Wernicke’s ecephalo pathy

Option D: Erythema nodosum leprosum

Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum leprosum ✔

Option A: Epinephrine

Option B: Hydrocortisone

Option C: Succinylcholine

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Epinephrine ✔

Option A: Erythromycin

Option B: Doxycycline

Option C: Penicillin

Option D: Streptomycin

Correct Answer: Erythromycin ✔

Option A: Neostigmine

Option B: Ephedrine

Option C: Scopalamine

Option D: Atropine

Correct Answer: Neostigmine ✔

Option A: Blood coagulant

Option B: Astrigent

Option C: Styptic

Option D: All of the following

Correct Answer: Astrigent ✔

Option A: Atropine

Option B: Chlorpheniramine

Option C: Imipramine

Option D: Neostigmine

Correct Answer: Neostigmine ✔

Option A: Asthma

Option B: Myocardial infarction

Option C: Shock

Option D: Anaphylaxis

Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction ✔

Option A: NIfedipine

Option B: Isosobide dinitrate

Option C: Verapamil

Option D: Digoxin

Correct Answer: NIfedipine ✔

Option A: Corticosteroids

Option B: Adrenaline

Option C: Glucose 1.V

Option D: Saline 1.V

Correct Answer: Adrenaline ✔

Option A: Hydrogen peroxide

Option B: Mebromine

Option C: Iodine

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Iodine ✔

Option A: Cumulation

Option B: Induction

Option C: Synergism

Option D: Antagonism

Correct Answer: Synergism ✔

Option A: An agonist

Option B: A non competitive antagonist

Option C: A physiologic antagonist

Option D: A competitive antagonist

Correct Answer: An agonist ✔

Option A: Oral

Option B: Inhalation

Option C: Rectal

Option D: Parental

Correct Answer: Oral ✔

Option A: Congestive cardiac failure

Option B: Hepartic cirrhossis

Option C: Hyperthyroidism

Option D: Hypolbuminaemia

Correct Answer: Congestive cardiac failure ✔

Option A: Thiopentone

Option B: Ketamine

Option C: Propofol

Option D: Fentanyl

Correct Answer: Ketamine ✔

Option A: Platalets <80,000

Option B: Patient on aspirin

Option C: Patient on oral anticoagulants

Option D: Raised intracranial pressure

Correct Answer: Patient on aspirin ✔

Option A: Propofol

Option B: Diazepam

Option C: Droperidol

Option D: Midazolam

Correct Answer: Propofol ✔

Option A: Stage I

Option B: Stage II

Option C: Stage III plane 2

Option D: Stage III plane 3

Correct Answer: Stage I ✔

Option A: Methoxyflurane

Option B: Sevoflurane

Option C: Desflurane

Option D: Isoflurane

Correct Answer: Sevoflurane ✔

Option A: Ketamine

Option B: Thiopentone

Option C: Tentanyl

Option D: Nitrous oxide

Correct Answer: Ketamine ✔

Option A: Cocaine

Option B: Procaine

Option C: Lignocaine

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Cocaine ✔

Option A: Cocaine

Option B: Etomidate

Option C: Cyclopropane

Option D: Procaine

Correct Answer: Cocaine ✔

Option A: Daroperidol + Fentanyl

Option B: Deroperidol + Ketamine

Option C: Droperiodl + Ether

Option D: Droperiodl + Thiopental sodium + Nitrous oxide

Correct Answer: Daroperidol + Fentanyl ✔

Option A: Harpes David

Option B: Harvey william

Option C: Horace wells

Option D: Hunter John

Correct Answer: Horace wells ✔

Option A: Cocaine

Option B: Procaine

Option C: Lidocaine

Option D: Tetracaine

Correct Answer: Cocaine ✔

Option A: Short general anesthetic agent

Option B: Local anesthetic agent

Option C: Antidepressive agent

Option D: Hypnotic agent

Correct Answer: Short general anesthetic agent ✔

Option A: Behavioral problem

Option B: Sensitizes the heart to adrenaline

Option C: Prolonged difficult induction

Option D: Tachycardia and or arrhythmias

Correct Answer: Behavioral problem ✔

Option A: Thiopental

Option B: Halothane

Option C: Ethyl Ether

Option D: Nitrous oxide

Correct Answer: Halothane ✔

Option A: Increasing A-V conduction

Option B: Decreasing cardiac excitability

Option C: Increasing cardiac conduction velocity

Option D: Increasing spontaneous pacemaker activity

Correct Answer: Decreasing cardiac excitability ✔

Option A: Analgesia

Option B: Excitation

Option C: Surgical anesthesia

Option D: Respiratory arrest

Correct Answer: Analgesia ✔

Option A: Local anesthetic property

Option B: Local anesthetic and antiseptic action

Option C: Antiseptic action

Option D: Antibiotic action

Correct Answer: Antiseptic action ✔

Option A: 5 to 20% N20

Option B: 20 to 30% N20

Option C: 30 to 50% N20

Option D: 50 to 70% N20

Correct Answer: 50 to 70% N20 ✔

Option A: Procaine

Option B: Tetracaine

Option C: Lidocaine

Option D: Benzocaine

Correct Answer: Procaine ✔

Option A: Plasma half-life is 90 min

Option B: Is amide which is metabolized in liver

Option C: Mandibular infiltration is more effective than nerve block in mandibular molar teeth

Option D: More breaks down causes more toxicity

Correct Answer: Plasma half-life is 90 min ✔

Option A: A good analgesic but a poor anesthetic

Option B: A good anesthetic but a poor analgesic

Option C: A good analgesic and a good anesthetic

Option D: A poor analgesic and a poor anesthetic

Correct Answer: A good analgesic but a poor anesthetic ✔

Option A: Lignocaine

Option B: Procaine

Option C: Tetracaine

Option D: Benzocaine

Correct Answer: Procaine ✔

Option A: Halothane

Option B: Isoflurane

Option C: Sevoflurane

Option D: Desflurane

Correct Answer: Halothane ✔

Option A: Isoflurane

Option B: Ether

Option C: Halothane

Option D: Proplofol

Correct Answer: Halothane ✔

Option A: Myoneural junction

Option B: Central

Option C: Ascending reticular

Option D: Red nucleus activating system

Correct Answer: Myoneural junction ✔

Option A: Constricted

Option B: Partially dilated

Option C: Normal in size

Option D: Totally dilated

Correct Answer: Partially dilated ✔

Option A: Motor fibers only

Option B: Motor and sensory fibres

Option C: Only sensory fibres

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Only sensory fibres ✔

Option A: Procaine

Option B: Xylocaine

Option C: Lignocaine

Option D: Bupivacaine

Correct Answer: Procaine ✔

Option A: Alveolar exchage

Option B: Pulmonary ventilation

Option C: Solubility of anaesthetic in blood

Option D: solubility of anaesthetic in tissue

Correct Answer: Solubility of anaesthetic in blood ✔

Option A: Martin

Option B: Morton

Option C: Morrison

Option D: Murray

Correct Answer: Morton ✔

Option A: Lignocaine

Option B: Benzacaine

Option C: Prilocaine

Option D: Procaine

Correct Answer: Prilocaine ✔

Option A: Propanidid

Option B: Theiopentone sodium

Option C: Fentany droperodol

Option D: Ketamine

Correct Answer: Ketamine ✔

Option A: Spinal Cord

Option B: Medulla oblonagata

Option C: Medullary cortex

Option D: Cerebrum

Correct Answer: Medulla oblonagata ✔

Option A: Rapid biotransformation

Option B: Rapid accumulation in body fat

Option C: High lipid solubility

Option D: Ability to enter and leave brain tissue every rapidly

Correct Answer: High lipid solubility ✔

Option A: Blood solubility

Option B: Cerebral blood flow

Option C: Partial pressure of GA

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Haemoglobin

Option B: White blood cells

Option C: Red Blood cells

Option D: Serum

Correct Answer: Red Blood cells ✔

Option A: Age < 5 years

Option B: History of epilepsy

Option C: Raised intracranial tension

Option D: Recent anterior myocardial infarction

Correct Answer: Recent anterior myocardial infarction ✔