Medical MCQs

Option A: Halothane

Option B: Ketamine

Option C: Enflurane

Option D: Isoflurane

Correct Answer: Ketamine ✔

Option A: Weight of the child

Option B: Age of child

Option C: Nature of the drug

Option D: Chronicity of pain

Correct Answer: Weight of the child ✔

Option A: Enalapril

Option B: clonidine

Option C: Salmeterol

Option D: Acetazolamide

Correct Answer: Enalapril ✔

Option A: 12 hrs

Option B: 20 hrs

Option C: 25 hrs

Option D: 30 hrs

Correct Answer: 20 hrs ✔

Option A: Super sensitivity

Option B: Idiosyncrasy

Option C: Hyper sensitivity

Option D: Hyper acidity

Correct Answer: Hyper sensitivity ✔

Option A: Salbutamol

Option B: Verapamil

Option C: Propranolol

Option D: Paracetamol

Correct Answer: Propranolol ✔

Option A: Propofol

Option B: Sevoflurane

Option C: Flumazanil

Option D: Naloxane

Correct Answer: Propofol ✔

Option A: phenytoin

Option B: Diazepam

Option C: Corticosteroids

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: prevents or bypasses first pass effects

Option B: Easy to administer

Option C: Lipid soluble

Option D: Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity

Correct Answer: prevents or bypasses first pass effects ✔

Option A: 84%

Option B: 93%

Option C: 80.5%

Option D: 4.75%

Correct Answer: 93% ✔

Option A: Passive diffusion

Option B: Active transport

Option C: Facilitated trasnsport

Option D: Filtration

Correct Answer: Passive diffusion ✔

Option A: Idosyncrasy

Option B: Toxicity

Option C: Side effect

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Toxicity ✔

Option A: The proto type member of a class of drugs

Option B: The oldest member of a class of drugs

Option C: An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite

Option D: A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the direction

Correct Answer: An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite ✔

Option A: 48

Option B: 24

Option C: 12

Option D: 3

Correct Answer: 3 ✔

Option A: Purity of Enzyme

Option B: Physiological role

Option C: Half life enzymes drug complex

Option D: Affinity

Correct Answer: Half life enzymes drug complex ✔

Option A: Morbidity index

Option B: Moratality index

Option C: Anesthetic ratio

Option D: Therapeutic index

Correct Answer: Therapeutic index ✔

Option A: Drug toxicty

Option B: Drug potency

Option C: Drug safety

Option D: Drug’s Lethal effect

Correct Answer: Drug safety ✔

Option A: First trimester

Option B: Second trimester

Option C: Third trimester

Option D: Soon after birth

Correct Answer: First trimester ✔

Option A: It is useful in emergencies

Option B: Aseptic precautions are required

Option C: Bioavailability is 100%

Option D: Suspensions can be administered

Correct Answer: Suspensions can be administered ✔

Option A: Ld50

Option B: Td50

Option C: Md50

Option D: Ed50

Correct Answer: Ed50 ✔

Option A: Is healthy

Option B: With mild systemic disease

Option C: With severe systemic disease

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: With mild systemic disease ✔

Option A: 1 mg of A causes same effect of 3 mg of B, so A is more potent

Option B: 1 mg of A cause effect not even caused by maximum tolerated dose of B, so drug A is more efficacious

Option C: 1 mg of A cause effect not caused by 1 mg of B so A is more efficacious

Option D: Efficacy is not dose dependent

Correct Answer: Efficacy is not dose dependent ✔

Option A: A normal healthy individual

Option B: A patient with mild systemic disease

Option C: A patient with severe systemic disease that it not in capacitating

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: A patient with severe systemic disease that it not in capacitating ✔

Option A: Inverse agonist

Option B: Antagonist

Option C: Agonist

Option D: Partial agonist

Correct Answer: Agonist ✔

Option A: Side effect

Option B: Toxicity effect

Option C: Idiosyncratic effect

Option D: Drug on Drug effect

Correct Answer: Idiosyncratic effect ✔

Option A: Morphine

Option B: Nitroglycerine

Option C: Propranolol

Option D: Salicylates

Correct Answer: Salicylates ✔

Option A: Volume of distribution

Option B: Clearance

Option C: Rate of administration

Option D: Half life

Correct Answer: Volume of distribution ✔

Option A: Tetracycline

Option B: Cimetidine

Option C: Rifampicin

Option D: Phenobarbitone

Correct Answer: Cimetidine ✔

Option A: Penicillamine

Option B: E.D.T.A

Option C: Desferrixamine

Option D: B.A.L

Correct Answer: B.A.L ✔

Option A: Anti-hypertensives

Option B: Anti-diabetics

Option C: Anticoagulants

Option D: Anti-fibrinolytics

Correct Answer: Anticoagulants ✔

Option A: Range of disease in which the drug beneficial

Option B: Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

Option C: The therapeutic does range of the drug

Option D: The therapeutic index of the drug

Correct Answer: Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug ✔

Option A: It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation

Option B: Biovailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the area under cure (o-a) after oral and intravenous (IV) administration

Option C: Low oral biovailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption

Option D: Biovailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data

Correct Answer: Low oral biovailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption ✔

Option A: Indifference

Option B: Synergy

Option C: Antagonism

Option D: Bacterial symbiosis

Correct Answer: Synergy ✔

Option A: Amiodarone

Option B: Phenytoin

Option C: Verapamil

Option D: Disorpyamide

Correct Answer: Verapamil ✔

Option A: Physical dependence

Option B: Psychological dependence

Option C: Addiction

Option D: Habituation

Correct Answer: Physical dependence ✔

Option A: Genetic component

Option B: Psychological component

Option C: Psysiological component

Option D: Nutritional component

Correct Answer: Genetic component ✔

Option A: Phenytoin

Option B: Phenabarbtion

Option C: Erythromycin

Option D: Digoxin

Correct Answer: Phenytoin ✔

Option A: Are more common than first order kinetics

Option B: Decrease in concentration exponentially with time

Option C: Have a half – life independent of dose

Option D: Show a plot of drug concentration versus time that is linear

Correct Answer: C. Have a half – life independent of dose ✔

Option A: LD 100/Ed100

Option B: ED 100/LD 100

Option C: LD 50/ED500

Option D: ED50/LD50

Correct Answer: LD 50/ED500 ✔

Option A: previous exposure to the drug

Option B: Dosage of the drug received

Option C: Pharmacological action of the drug

Option D: Antigen antibody reaction

Correct Answer: Dosage of the drug received ✔

Option A: Skin eruptions

Option B: Angioneurotic edema

Option C: Sialorrhea

Option D: Serum imbalance

Correct Answer: Both A & B ✔

Option A: Drugs given IM

Option B: Drugs taken orally

Option C: Drugs given IV

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Drugs taken orally ✔

Option A: IgG

Option B: IgA

Option C: IgM

Option D: IgE

Correct Answer: IgA ✔

Option A: Hydolysis

Option B: Reduction

Option C: Oxidation

Option D: Conjugation

Correct Answer: Conjugation ✔

Option A: Domperidone

Option B: Phenazocine

Option C: Cyclizine

Option D: Ondanestron

Correct Answer: Phenazocine ✔

Option A: Propranolol

Option B: Timolol

Option C: Metoprolol

Option D: Labetalol

Correct Answer: Labetalol ✔

Option A: Ranitidine

Option B: Sucralfate

Option C: Misoprostal

Option D: Pantoprazole

Correct Answer: Sucralfate ✔

Option A: Aminoglycoside

Option B: Vancomycin

Option C: Calcium channel blocker

Option D: Metronidazole

Correct Answer: Calcium channel blocker ✔

Option A: Cromolyn sodium

Option B: Hydrocortisone

Option C: Salbutamol

Option D: Ipratropium

Correct Answer: Ipratropium ✔

Option A: Sodium Nitro prusside

Option B: Hydrallazine

Option C: Nifedipine

Option D: Nitrates

Correct Answer: Nitrates ✔

Option A: Ondansetron

Option B: Metoclopramide

Option C: Sodium citrate

Option D: Atropine

Correct Answer: Metoclopramide ✔

Option A: Cardiac asthma

Option B: Bronchial asthma

Option C: Pulmanray oedema

Option D: Cor pulmonale

Correct Answer: Bronchial asthma ✔

Option A: Chlorpromazine

Option B: Digitoxin

Option C: Metaclopromide

Option D: Scopolamine

Correct Answer: Digitoxin ✔

Option A: Crohn’s disease (treatment)

Option B: To reduce the number of draining enterocutaneous fistula(s) in patients with fistulizing crohn’s disease

Option C: Rheumatoid arthritis (treatment)

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Domperidone blocks the D2 receptors in CTZ and upper gut

Option B: Domperidone causes Dystonia

Option C: Ondastran acts on selective 5 -HT3 receptors

Option D: Ondastran may cause vomiting by effecting the cytotoxic antige receptors

Correct Answer: Ondastran may cause vomiting by effecting the cytotoxic antige receptors ✔

Option A: Morphine

Option B: Propanolol

Option C: Stropine

Option D: Nitroglycerine

Correct Answer: Nitroglycerine ✔

Option A: Amphetamine

Option B: Nor epinephrine

Option C: Isoproterenol

Option D: Phenylephrine

Correct Answer: Isoproterenol ✔

Option A: Angina pectoris

Option B: Cardiac arrhythmia

Option C: Cardiac failure

Option D: Myocardial infarction

Correct Answer: Cardiac failure ✔

Option A: Direct action on smooth muscle

Option B: Slows SA node conductivity

Option C: Blocks arrhythmia

Option D: Increases perfusion to heart

Correct Answer: Direct action on smooth muscle ✔

Option A: Hypokalemia

Option B: Hyperuricemia

Option C: Hypercalcemia

Option D: Hyponatremia

Correct Answer: Hypercalcemia ✔

Option A: ASA

Option B: Acetyl morphine

Option C: Pentazocine

Option D: Propoxyphene

Correct Answer: Acetyl morphine ✔

Option A: Sodium

Option B: Calcium

Option C: Potassium

Option D: Iron

Correct Answer: Potassium ✔

Option A: Used in asthma

Option B: Increase quality of life

Option C: Postural hypotension is seen

Option D: Na level decrease

Correct Answer: Postural hypotension is seen ✔

Option A: Rifampicin causes hepatic enzyme induction and increase metabolism of OCP’s

Option B: Decreased absorption of OCP’s

Option C: Obstruction of fallopian tubes

Option D: Increase excretion of OCP’s

Correct Answer: A. Rifampicin causes hepatic enzyme induction and increase metabolism of OCP’s ✔

Option A: The effect is more pronounced in venous

Option B: High membrane penetrability

Option C: Poorly suited for oral administration

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Mixture of sulphated polypeptide

Option B: Known to cause idiopathic thrombocytosis

Option C: Half-life is 90 min

Option D: Decrease action of prothrombin III

Correct Answer: Half-life is 90 min ✔

Option A: Flunarizine

Option B: Divalprox sodium

Option C: Zonisamide

Option D: Propanolol

Correct Answer: Zonisamide ✔

Option A: H2 antihistamines

Option B: NaHCO3

Option C: Famotidine

Option D: Carbenoxolone

Correct Answer: Carbenoxolone ✔

Option A: Hydralazine

Option B: a-Methldopa

Option C: Nifedipine

Option D: Enlapril

Correct Answer: Enlapril ✔

Option A: Quinapril

Option B: Fosinopril

Option C: Benzopril

Option D: Lisinopril

Correct Answer: Lisinopril ✔

Option A: Dopamine

Option B: dobutamine

Option C: Digoxin

Option D: Doxepin

Correct Answer: Doxepin ✔

Option A: Renal colic

Option B: Organophosphorus poisoning

Option C: Bronchial asthma

Option D: miosis

Correct Answer: Bronchial ✔

Option A: May cause hyperkalaemia in diabetic patients

Option B: Contraindicated in pregnancy

Option C: Contraindicated in diabetic nephropathy

Option D: NSAIDs may impair its hypotensive effect

Correct Answer: Contraindicated in diabetic nephropathy ✔

Option A: Albuterol

Option B: Salmeterol

Option C: Pirlbuterol

Option D: Orciprenaline

Correct Answer: Salmeterol ✔

Option A: Sodium nitrate

Option B: Epinephrine

Option C: Nitroglycerina

Option D: Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct Answer: Nitroglycerina ✔

Option A: Cimetidine

Option B: Famotidine

Option C: Ranitidine

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Cimetidine ✔

Option A: Saralosin

Option B: Diltiazem

Option C: Coptopril

Option D: Spirino lactone

Correct Answer: Coptopril ✔

Option A: Peptic Ulcer

Option B: Amoebiasis

Option C: Malaria

Option D: cholera

Correct Answer: Peptic Ulcer ✔

Option A: Mummifying agent

Option B: Anticoagulant

Option C: Counter irritant

Option D: Anti diarroheal

Correct Answer: Anti diarroheal ✔

Option A: Antihistamine

Option B: Proton pump inhibitor

Option C: Ulcer protective

Option D: Ulcer healing drug

Correct Answer: Proton pump inhibitor ✔

Option A: Kaolin has marginal therapeutic effect

Option B: Opioids delay the passage of gut contents by decreasing peristalsis and increasing intestinal segmentation

Option C: Loperamide had high abuse potential

Option D: Diphenoxylate may cause respiratory depression on administration

Correct Answer: Diphenoxylate may cause respiratory depression on administration ✔

Option A: Mg Causes constipation, Al causes diarrhoea

Option B: Mg Causes Diarrhoea, Al Causes Constipation

Option C: Mg act as buffering agent and Al antagonize its action

Option D: Both increase gastric motility

Correct Answer: Mg Causes Diarrhoea, Al Causes Constipation ✔

Option A: Adrenaline

Option B: propranolol

Option C: Atropine

Option D: Salbutamol

Correct Answer: propranolol ✔

Option A: Histamine

Option B: Salbutamol

Option C: Acetylcholine

Option D: Serotonin

Correct Answer: Salbutamol ✔

Option A: Bronchial asthma

Option B: cardiac asthma

Option C: Hypertension

Option D: Angina pectrosis

Correct Answer: Bronchial asthma ✔

Option A: Phenochyromocytoma

Option B: Migraine

Option C: Thyrotoxcosis

Option D: Secondary shock

Correct Answer: Thyrotoxcosis ✔

Option A: Epinephrine

Option B: Atropine

Option C: A diuretic

Option D: A potent vasadilatior

Correct Answer: Atropine ✔

Option A: Propranolol

Option B: Hydralazine

Option C: A thiazide diuretic

Option D: Gauanethidine

Correct Answer: Gauanethidine ✔

Option A: Ephedrine

Option B: Reserpine

Option C: Methyldopa

Option D: Thiazole diuretics

Correct Answer: Ephedrine ✔

Option A: Less tolerance develops

Option B: Sublingual absorption is better

Option C: Longer duration of action

Option D: Direct coronary vasodilatory action is more

Correct Answer: Longer duration of action ✔

Option A: Alpha methyl DOPA

Option B: Prazosin

Option C: Clonidine

Option D: Propranolol

Correct Answer: Prazosin ✔

Option A: Digitalis

Option B: Ibuprufen

Option C: Corticosteroids

Option D: Diazepam

Correct Answer: Digitalis ✔

Option A: Calcium channel blockers

Option B: Alpha methyl dopa

Option C: Beta blockers

Option D: Pentoxifyline

Correct Answer: Pentoxifyline ✔

Option A: Amlodipine

Option B: Bidoprolo

Option C: Amiodarnone

Option D: Digoxin

Correct Answer: Digoxin ✔

Option A: Hypertension

Option B: Angina pectoris

Option C: Atrial fibrillation

Option D: Congestive heart failure

Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation ✔

Option A: Lidocaine

Option B: Quinidine

Option C: Phenytoin

Option D: Propranolol

Correct Answer: Quinidine ✔

Option A: Sedative

Option B: Alkaloid

Option C: Diuretic

Option D: Anti hypertensive

Correct Answer: Both A & B ✔

Option A: Increases cAMP

Option B: Direct Vasodilator

Option C: Calcium channel blocker

Option D: Block the sympathetic flow at hypothalamus

Correct Answer: Direct Vasodilator ✔

Option A: It has a prominent smooth muscle relaxant action causes arteolar dilation leading to fall in blood pressure

Option B: Nifidipine depresses the SA node thus decreasing mycocoardial excitability

Option C: Mainly depression of A-V conduction

Option D: Decreased cardiac output thus decreasing load on myocardium

Correct Answer: It has a prominent smooth muscle relaxant action causes arteolar dilation leading to fall in blood pressure ✔

Option A: Tetracycline

Option B: Sulphonamide

Option C: Cephalosporin

Option D: Lincemycin

Correct Answer: Cephalosporin ✔