Medical MCQs

Option A: Zidovodine

Option B: Acyclovir

Option C: Nystatin

Option D: Amontidine

Correct Answer: Acyclovir ✔

Option A: Primaquine is liable to cause hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency

Option B: Halofantrine prolongs QT interval and causes dysarrythmia

Option C: Mefloquine may safely be given to air pilots

Option D: Primaquine eliminates P. vivax and P. ovale

Correct Answer: Mefloquine may safely be given to air pilots ✔

Option A: Ceftazidine

Option B: Cefotaxime

Option C: Cefoperazone

Option D: Cefaclor

Correct Answer: Cefaclor ✔

Option A: Miconazole

Option B: Clobetasol

Option C: Clotrimazole

Option D: Amoxycillin

Correct Answer: Clotrimazole ✔

Option A: Antifungal agent

Option B: Antibacterial

Option C: Antiviral agent

Option D: Chemotherapic agent

Correct Answer: Antifungal agent ✔

Option A: Interfere with metabolism

Option B: Inhibition of protein synthesis

Option C: Inhibition of cell wall formation

Option D: Interfere with DNA function

Correct Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis ✔

Option A: Ampicillin

Option B: Sulbactum

Option C: Cloxacillin

Option D: Pencillin G

Correct Answer: Sulbactum ✔

Option A: Skin rash

Option B: Intersititial Nephritis

Option C: Drug fever

Option D: Encephalopathy

Correct Answer: Encephalopathy ✔

Option A: Ulcerative gingivitis

Option B: Amoebiasis

Option C: Trichomonas infection

Option D: Streptococcal sore throat

Correct Answer: Streptococcal sore throat ✔

Option A: Tetracycline

Option B: Lincomycin

Option C: Clindamyclin

Option D: Penicillin G

Correct Answer: Tetracycline ✔

Option A: Ciprofloxacin

Option B: Chloroquin

Option C: Mebendazole

Option D: Bephenium Naphthoate

Correct Answer: Chloroquin ✔

Option A: Nystatin

Option B: Bacitracin

Option C: Penicillin

Option D: Tetracycline

Correct Answer: Nystatin ✔

Option A: Ritonavir

Option B: Saquinavir

Option C: Nelfinavir

Option D: Zanamivir

Correct Answer: Zanamivir ✔

Option A: Tetracyclines

Option B: Aminoglycosides

Option C: Quinalones

Option D: Macrolides

Correct Answer: Aminoglycosides ✔

Option A: Penicillin

Option B: Demeclocycline

Option C: Erythormycin

Option D: Streptomycin

Correct Answer: Demeclocycline ✔

Option A: Ca salts

Option B: Mg salts

Option C: All salts

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Ceftum

Option B: Ciprofloxacin

Option C: Clindamycin

Option D: Erythromycin

Correct Answer: Clindamycin ✔

Option A: Oral antibiotic

Option B: Topical antibiotic

Option C: Parenteral antibiotic

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Topical antibiotic ✔

Option A: Broad spectrum antibiotic

Option B: Quinolone

Option C: Imidazole derivative

Option D: Antidepressant

Correct Answer: Imidazole derivative ✔

Option A: Lincomycin

Option B: Penicillin

Option C: Cephalexin

Option D: Ampicillin

Correct Answer: Lincomycin ✔

Option A: Streptomycin

Option B: INH

Option C: Ethambutol

Option D: Cephalosporins

Correct Answer: INH ✔

Option A: Ethambutol

Option B: Isoniazid

Option C: Streptomycin

Option D: Kanamycin

Correct Answer: Streptomycin ✔

Option A: Ethambutol

Option B: Streptomycin

Option C: Kanamycin

Option D: B & C

Correct Answer: B & C ✔

Option A: Calcification

Option B: Missing teeth

Option C: Discolored teeth

Option D: Peg teeth

Correct Answer: Discolored teeth ✔

Option A: It is broad spectrum antibiotic

Option B: It has anticollagenolytic effect

Option C: All of the above

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Candidiasis

Option B: Photosensitivity

Option C: Bone marrow depression

Option D: Angioneurotic oedema

Correct Answer: Bone marrow depression ✔

Option A: Dapsone

Option B: Streptomycin

Option C: Clofazimine

Option D: Ethambutol

Correct Answer: Clofazimine ✔

Option A: Rifampicin induce the metabolism of contra ceptive

Option B: Rifampicin simulates gonadotropin relase from pituitary

Option C: Rifampicin decrease the secretion of progestin

Option D: Rifampicin antagonize the action of oral contraceptive

Correct Answer: Rifampicin induce the metabolism of contra ceptive ✔

Option A: Rifampicin

Option B: INH

Option C: Pyrazinamide

Option D: Ethambutol

Correct Answer: Ethambutol ✔

Option A: Isoniazid

Option B: Streptomycin

Option C: Ripampicin

Option D: Pyrazinamide

Correct Answer: Streptomycin ✔

Option A: Hypo Kalemia

Option B: Hyperkalemia

Option C: Hypermagnesemia

Option D: Hyponatremia

Correct Answer: Hypo Kalemia ✔

Option A: Ampicillin

Option B: Dicloxacillin

Option C: Erythromycin

Option D: Any of the above

Correct Answer: Dicloxacillin ✔

Option A: Penicillin

Option B: Streptomycin

Option C: Garamycin

Option D: Kanamycin

Correct Answer: Penicillin ✔

Option A: Benzyl penicillin

Option B: Benzathine penicillin

Option C: Procaine pencillin

Option D: Penicillin V / Phenoxymethyl penicillin

Correct Answer: Penicillin V / Phenoxymethyl penicillin ✔

Option A: Antiemetic

Option B: Antiviral

Option C: Antifungal

Option D: antibiotic

Correct Answer: antibiotic ✔

Option A: Amoxicillin

Option B: Carbenicillin

Option C: Cloxacillin

Option D: Phenoxymethy penicillin

Correct Answer: Carbenicillin ✔

Option A: Side effects of drugs

Option B: Cost of therapy

Option C: Dosage of drugs

Option D: Development of drug resistance

Correct Answer: Development of drug resistance ✔

Option A: pencillin

Option B: Tetracycline

Option C: Cephalosporins

Option D: Erythromycin

Correct Answer: Tetracycline ✔

Option A: Increase effectivity against gram-negative organisms

Option B: Inhibition of B-lactamases

Option C: Increase the effectiveness against delta lactamase producing organism

Option D: Increase effectivity against gram-positive organisms

Correct Answer: Inhibition of B-lactamases ✔

Option A: Show cross sensitivity with penicillins

Option B: Are penicillinase resistant

Option C: Have a broad spectrum but are inactive against anaerobes

Option D: Are used in upper respiratory tract infections

Correct Answer: Are penicillinase resistant ✔

Option A: Diloxane

Option B: Metronidazole

Option C: Chloroquine

Option D: Cefaclor

Correct Answer: Metronidazole ✔

Option A: Rifampicin

Option B: Ethambutol

Option C: INH

Option D: Streptomycin

Correct Answer: Rifampicin ✔

Option A: Amoxycillin

Option B: Cloxacillin

Option C: Ampicillin

Option D: Penicillin G

Correct Answer: Cloxacillin ✔

Option A: Kala azar

Option B: Pernicious anaemia

Option C: Pain control

Option D: Thalassemia

Correct Answer: Thalassemia ✔

Option A: Ampicillin

Option B: Tetracyclin

Option C: Erythromycin

Option D: Co-trimoxazole

Correct Answer: Erythromycin ✔

Option A: Amphotericin

Option B: Nystatin

Option C: Ketoconazole

Option D: Clotrimazole

Correct Answer: Clotrimazole ✔

Option A: Tetracycline

Option B: Metronidazole

Option C: Ciprofloxacin

Option D: Cefotaxim

Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin ✔

Option A: Alteration of drug binding sites

Option B: Alteration of dehydrofolate reductase

Option C: Inactivation of drug by enzymes

Option D: Decreased uptake of drug by bacteria

Correct Answer: Inactivation of drug by enzymes ✔

Option A: Inhibits DNA gyrase

Option B: Inhibits Bacterial protein synthesis

Option C: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

Option D: Inhibits intake of folic acid

Correct Answer: Inhibits DNA gyrase ✔

Option A: Children

Option B: Pregnancy

Option C: Renal failure

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Erythromycin

Option B: Streptomycin

Option C: Tetracycline

Option D: Chloramphenicol

Correct Answer: Erythromycin ✔

Option A: Staining of teeth

Option B: Aplastic anaemia

Option C: Bone marrow suppression

Option D: B & C

Correct Answer: B & C ✔

Option A: More reliable oral obsorption

Option B: Greater resistance to pencillinase

Option C: Slower renal excretion

Option D: Broader antibacterial spectrum

Correct Answer: More reliable oral obsorption ✔

Option A: Chloramphenicol

Option B: Gentamicin

Option C: Sulphadiazine

Option D: Tetracycline

Correct Answer: Gentamicin ✔

Option A: Anaphylactic shock

Option B: Diarrhoea

Option C: Oral candidiasis

Option D: Renal failure

Correct Answer: Diarrhoea ✔

Option A: Penetrate the blood brain barrier

Option B: Cause euphoria

Option C: Both of the above

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Both of the above ✔

Option A: Antidiuretic

Option B: Antianabolic

Option C: Anti-infective

Option D: Anti-inflammatory

Correct Answer: Anti-inflammatory ✔

Option A: Oraganophosphate poisoning

Option B: Paracetamol poisoning

Option C: Mushroom poisoning

Option D: Atropine poisoning

Correct Answer: Atropine poisoning ✔

Option A: Loratidine

Option B: Acrivastatine

Option C: Cyclizine

Option D: Terfenidine

Correct Answer: Cyclizine ✔

Option A: Dexamethasone

Option B: Beclomethasone

Option C: Budesonide

Option D: Fluticasone

Correct Answer: Dexamethasone ✔

Option A: Activating receptors on beta cells of pancreas to release insulin

Option B: Inhibiting gluconeogenesis in liver

Option C: Enhancing insulin mediated post receptor enzyme reaction

Option D: Decreasing Glucose absorption from the qut

Correct Answer: Decreasing Glucose absorption from the qut ✔

Option A: Regulates vasomotor tone

Option B: Acts via cAMP

Option C: Present in cigarette smoke

Option D: It is important in penile erection

Correct Answer: Acts via cAMP ✔

Option A: Anti hypertensive

Option B: Antidiabetic

Option C: Antipalatelet

Option D: Anticoagulant

Correct Answer: Antipalatelet ✔

Option A: B-blocker

Option B: Glucocorticoids

Option C: Acetylcholine

Option D: a-blockers

Correct Answer: Glucocorticoids ✔

Option A: Hypoglycemic episodes in diabetes

Option B: Worsening of preexisting asthma

Option C: Ischemic cardiac episode on abrupt discontinuation

Option D: Precipitate migrainic effect

Correct Answer: Precipitate migrainic effect ✔

Option A: Iron dextran

Option B: Iron Sorbitol Citrate Solution

Option C: ferrous Sulphate

Option D: ferrous Humourate

Correct Answer: Iron dextran ✔

Option A: Blocking acetylcholine receptors

Option B: Prevent release of acetyl choline

Option C: Destroys acetyl choline

Option D: Inactivate acetylcholine esterase enzyme

Correct Answer: Blocking acetylcholine receptors ✔

Option A: Propofol

Option B: Sevofluorane

Option C: Naloxane

Option D: Flumizenil

Correct Answer: Propofol ✔

Option A: d-tubecurarine

Option B: Acetycholine

Option C: Atracurium

Option D: Acetazolamide

Correct Answer: Atracurium ✔

Option A: Edrophonium

Option B: Demecarium

Option C: Carbaryl

Option D: Tacrine

Correct Answer: Carbaryl ✔

Option A: Atropine

Option B: Neostigmine

Option C: Scopalamine

Option D: Ephedrine

Correct Answer: Neostigmine ✔

Option A: Organophosphate poisoning

Option B: Chronic glaucoma

Option C: Syncope

Option D: Trigeminal neuralgia

Correct Answer: Organophosphate poisoning ✔

Option A: Decreased blood pleasure caused by hexamethonium

Option B: Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine

Option C: Tachycardia caused by exercise

Option D: Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

Correct Answer: Decreased blood pleasure caused by hexamethonium ✔

Option A: Epinephrine

Option B: Succinylcholine

Option C: Tetracycline

Option D: Sulfonamides

Correct Answer: Epinephrine ✔

Option A: Dicumarol

Option B: Idphenadione

Option C: Heparin

Option D: Phenindone

Correct Answer: Heparin ✔

Option A: Prevents synthesis of prothrombin

Option B: Prevents synthesis of fibrinogen

Option C: Prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

Option D: Prevents prothrombin conversion to thrombin

Correct Answer: Prevents prothrombin conversion to thrombin ✔

Option A: Warfarin

Option B: Insultin

Option C: Glibeneclamide

Option D: Gluengon

Correct Answer: Glibeneclamide ✔

Option A: It is taken orally

Option B: It is used in type-I diabetes mellitus

Option C: It causes alcohol intolerance

Option D: It acts on pancreas to stimulate release of insulin

Correct Answer: It is used in type-I diabetes mellitus ✔

Option A: Miosis

Option B: Yawning

Option C: Lacrimation

Option D: Diarrhoea

Correct Answer: Miosis ✔

Option A: Transient hypercoagulability is seen

Option B: Better avoided during pregnancy as it may causes skeletal deformity of the foetus

Option C: In a racemic mixture the R form is four times more active than the S form

Option D: The anticoagulant effect is seen only after 72 hours of administration

Correct Answer: In a racemic mixture the R form is four times more active than the S form ✔

Option A: Phenylbutazone

Option B: Vitamin K

Option C: Rifampicin

Option D: B & C

Correct Answer: B & C ✔

Option A: Anti-inflaqmmatory drug

Option B: Antibiotic

Option C: Anti-arthritic drug

Option D: Antiplatelet drug

Correct Answer: Antiplatelet drug ✔

Option A: Astrigents

Option B: Styptics

Option C: Haemostatics

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Anticholinesterases

Option B: Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents

Option C: Indirect acting sympathomimetics

Option D: Direct acting sympathomimetics

Correct Answer: Indirect acting sympathomimetics ✔

Option A: Motion sickness

Option B: Hypertension

Option C: Decreased secretions

Option D: A & C

Correct Answer: A & C ✔

Option A: Succinylcholine

Option B: Pancuronium

Option C: Mivacurum

Option D: Decamethonium

Correct Answer: Mivacurum ✔

Option A: Depolarising block

Option B: Direct muscle relaxation

Option C: Centrally acting muscle relaxation

Option D: Dual action

Correct Answer: Depolarising block ✔

Option A: Vaso dilator

Option B: Vaso constrictor

Option C: Neuroleptic

Option D: Anti coagulant

Correct Answer: Vaso constrictor ✔

Option A: Agranulocytosis

Option B: Aplastic anaemia

Option C: Aaemolysis

Option D: Leukaemia

Correct Answer: Leukaemia ✔

Option A: Aspirin

Option B: Penicillinium

Option C: Amino epsilon caproic acid

Option D: Dipheny 1 hydantoin

Correct Answer: Aspirin ✔

Option A: Chlorozoxazone

Option B: Methocarbomol

Option C: Succinyl choline

Option D: Cortisopradol

Correct Answer: Succinyl choline ✔

Option A: Nicotinic

Option B: Muscarinic

Option C: Alpha 1 and 2

Option D: Beta 1 and 2

Correct Answer: Muscarinic ✔

Option A: D-tubocuraine

Option B: Succinyl choline

Option C: Pancuronium

Option D: Gallamine

Correct Answer: Succinyl choline ✔

Option A: Intravenous anaesthetic agent

Option B: Non-depolarizing muscle relaxant

Option C: Short-acting narcotic

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: None of the above ✔

Option A: Inhibits cellular respiration in mitochondria

Option B: Excreted unchanged in urine

Option C: Reduce hepatic glucose production

Option D: Used in decompensated heart failure

Correct Answer: Used in decompensated heart failure ✔

Option A: Pancuronium

Option B: Rocuronium

Option C: Vecuronium

Option D: Atracurium

Correct Answer: Pancuronium ✔

Option A: Increases salivary secretions

Option B: Decrease salivary secreations

Option C: Indicator dye for sialography

Option D: Medication for over function

Correct Answer: Increases salivary secretions ✔

Option A: With xylocaine

Option B: Post extraction socket

Option C: Anaphylactin shock

Option D: Angina in dental chair

Correct Answer: Both B & D ✔

Option A: Insulin

Option B: Estrogen

Option C: Vitamin D

Option D: Glucocorticoid

Correct Answer: Insulin ✔

Option A: Tranexamic acid

Option B: Clopidogrel

Option C: Aminocarproic Acid

Option D: Factor VIII cryoprecipitate

Correct Answer: Clopidogrel ✔