Option A: Glyburide
Option B: Repaglinide
Option C: Tolbutamide
Option D: Biguanide
Correct Answer: Biguanide ✔
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Option A: Hypertension
Option B: Hypotension
Option C: Doesn’t release histamine
Option D: Oral route of administration is the best route
Correct Answer: Hypotension ✔
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Option A: Chlorpropamide
Option B: Glibenclamide
Option C: Glicazide
Option D: Glipizide
Correct Answer: Chlorpropamide ✔
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Option A: Hydrocortisone
Option B: Spironolactone
Option C: Dexamethsone
Option D: Fludrocortisone
Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone ✔
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All of the following are endogenous corticosteriods released by all adrenal cortex EXCEPT__________?
Option A: Cortisol
Option B: Cortisone
Option C: Dexamethsone
Option D: Aldosterone
Correct Answer: Dexamethsone ✔
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Option A: Hypertension
Option B: Amxiety
Option C: Peripheral Vascular disease
Option D: Benign Prostatic hypertrophy
Correct Answer: Amxiety ✔
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Option A: Doxacurim
Option B: Decamethonium
Option C: Rocuronium
Option D: Mivacurium
Correct Answer: Decamethonium ✔
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Option A: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
Option B: Serotonergic receptors
Option C: Dopaminergic receptors
Option D: GABA receptors
Correct Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors ✔
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Option A: Sedatives
Option B: Vasoconstrictors
Option C: Antisialogogues
Option D: Local anaesthetic
Correct Answer: Antisialogogues ✔
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Option A: Epinephrine
Option B: Lidnocaine
Option C: Hydrocortisone
Option D: Dicoumarol
Correct Answer: Epinephrine ✔
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Option A: Focus of action
Option B: Onset and duration of action
Option C: Mode of biotransformation
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Onset and duration of action ✔
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Option A: Cause increase in B.P, due to its action on Beta receptors only
Option B: Cause decrease in B.P, due to its action on Alpha receptors only
Option C: Cause decrease in cardiac output and relax bradycardia
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Cause increase in B.P, due to its action on Beta receptors only ✔
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Option A: Epinephrine
Option B: Norepinephrine
Option C: Phenyleprine
Option D: Leuonordefrin
Correct Answer: Epinephrine ✔
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Option A: Warfarin sodium
Option B: Sodium oxalate
Option C: Heparin
Option D: Phenindone
Correct Answer: Heparin ✔
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Option A: Pregnancy
Option B: Nephrotic syndorme
Option C: Newborn
Option D: Liver disease
Correct Answer: Both A & B ✔
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Option A: Hepatic necrosis
Option B: Permanent sterility
Option C: Thromboembolic disorders
Option D: Cancer of breast
Correct Answer: Thromboembolic disorders ✔
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Option A: Ethosuxinide
Option B: Tolbutamide
Option C: Glibenclamide
Option D: Gluengon
Correct Answer: Glibenclamide ✔
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Steroids__________?
Option A: Steroids reduce the rate of repair of tissues thus delays the healing
Option B: Exacerbate the inflammatory response
Option C: Can be safely given to immunocompromised patients
Option D: Indicated in oral thrush
Correct Answer: Steroids reduce the rate of repair of tissues thus delays the healing ✔
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Option A: Bupivacaine
Option B: Procaine
Option C: Lidocaine
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: None of the above ✔
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Option A: Rifampicin
Option B: Amoxycillin
Option C: Erythromycin
Option D: Tetracycline
Correct Answer: Rifampicin ✔
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Option A: Protamine sultate
Option B: Vitamin K
Option C: Factor VIII
Option D: EADA
Correct Answer: Protamine sultate ✔
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Option A: Binding to calcium
Option B: Inhibiting fibrinogen synthesis
Option C: Inhibiting prothrombin synthesis
Option D: Inhibiting thrombin synthesis
Correct Answer: Inhibiting thrombin synthesis ✔
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Option A: Human thrombin
Option B: Heparin
Option C: Ferric chloride
Option D: Vit-K
Correct Answer: Heparin ✔
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Option A: Increased liver glycogenolysis
Option B: Causes broachiolar constriction
Option C: Evokes extrasystoles in the heart
Option D: Produces restlessness and anxiety
Correct Answer: Causes broachiolar constriction ✔
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Option A: Penicillinase
Option B: Protamine sulphate
Option C: Pryosulphate
Option D: Potassium sulphate
Correct Answer: Protamine sulphate ✔
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Option A: Testosterone
Option B: Parathyroid
Option C: Insulin
Option D: Thyroid
Correct Answer: Thyroid ✔
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Option A: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma
Option B: Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase
Option C: Inhibits sweat and lacrimation
Option D: Causes tachycardia
Correct Answer: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma ✔
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Option A: Atropine
Option B: Diazepam
Option C: Neostigmine
Option D: Succinylcholine
Correct Answer: Succinylcholine ✔
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Option A: Corticosteroids
Option B: Antihistamines
Option C: Adrenalin
Option D: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Adrenalin ✔
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Option A: Antacids
Option B: Benzodiazepine
Option C: Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen
Option D: Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol
Correct Answer: C. Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen ✔
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Option A: Mydriasis
Option B: Contraction of urinary spinctors
Option C: Vasoconstriction
Option D: Bronchial muscle relaxation
Correct Answer: Bronchial muscle relaxation ✔
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Option A: All beta-adrenergic receptors
Option B: Dopaminergic receptors
Option C: Beta 2 receptors
Option D: Opioid receptors
Correct Answer: All beta-adrenergic receptors ✔
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Option A: choline, adrenaline and amphetamine
Option B: Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine
Option C: Pancuronium, rocuronium
Option D: Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline
Correct Answer: Pancuronium, rocuronium ✔
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All of the following drugs are non depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents except__________?
Option A: D-tubocurarine
Option B: Gallamine triethiodide
Option C: Pancuronium bromide
Option D: Succinylcholine
Correct Answer: Succinylcholine ✔
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Option A: Bradycardia
Option B: Decreased Salivation
Option C: Decreased Sweating
Option D: Mydriasis
Correct Answer: Bradycardia ✔
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All of the following statements are true regarding cervicofacial actinomycosis, EXCEPT__________?
Option A: 110-20% of actinomycosis cases occur in cervicofacial region
Option B: The discharging pus contains visible sulphur granules
Option C: Cultures on blood agar often produce a typical molar tooth morphology
Option D: There is usually history of trauma such as tooth extraction or a blow to the jaw
Correct Answer: 110-20% of actinomycosis cases occur in cervicofacial region ✔
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Option A: Heart chamber
Option B: Valve cusp
Option C: Vein
Option D: Arteries
Correct Answer: Heart chamber ✔
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Option A: G6PD
Option B: Malaria
Option C: Thalassemia
Option D: Dengue fever
Correct Answer: Malaria ✔
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Option A: 47 X &, (+2)
Option B: 47 X Y, -14 t(14;21)
Option C: 46 X Y, -14 t(14;21)
Option D: 47 X Y, t(14;21)
Correct Answer: 47 X Y, t(14;21) ✔
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Option A: Induces cell mediated immunity
Option B: Induces Humoral immunity
Option C: Induces immunity by activation of cytoxic T-cells
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Induces Humoral immunity ✔
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Option A: 0.06 mg
Option B: 0.6 mg
Option C: 60 mg
Option D: 600 mg
Correct Answer: 0.6 mg ✔
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Option A: Polysyndactyly
Option B: Holoprosencephaly
Option C: Mayer Rokitansky syndrome
Option D: Gorlin syndrome
Correct Answer: Polysyndactyly ✔
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Option A: haemophilia
Option B: DIC
Option C: Thrombocytopenic purpura
Option D: Thrombasthenia
Correct Answer: DIC ✔
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Option A: Kleinfelters syndrome
Option B: Down syndrome
Option C: Turner syndrome
Option D: Marfan syndrome
Correct Answer: Kleinfelters syndrome ✔
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Option A: Thrombophebitis
Option B: Endarteritis
Option C: Atheroscleroses
Option D: Lymphangitis
Correct Answer: Thrombophebitis ✔
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Option A: Trisomy 21
Option B: Trisomy 18
Option C: Trisomy 13
Option D: Turner syndrome
Correct Answer: Trisomy 13 ✔
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Option A: PAS
Option B: Fontania stain
Option C: Ferrous trichrome
Option D: Pearls prussian blue
Correct Answer: PAS ✔
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Option A: NK cells (Netural killer cells)
Option B: Dendritic cells
Option C: Langerhan’s cells
Option D: Macrophages
Correct Answer: NK cells (Netural killer cells) ✔
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Option A: Silicosis
Option B: Asbestosis
Option C: Byssinosis
Option D: Anthracosis
Correct Answer: Asbestosis ✔
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Option A: Membrane attack complex killing
Option B: Oxidative and non-oxidative killing
Option C: Zipper killing
Option D: Chemotaxis
Correct Answer: Oxidative and non-oxidative killing ✔
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Option A: Neutrophilic infiltration
Option B: Astrocytes
Option C: Ingress of macrophages
Option D: Intense eosinophilia
Correct Answer: Astrocytes ✔
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Option A: Dysplasia
Option B: Anaplasia
Option C: Metaplasia
Option D: Normal histology
Correct Answer: Metaplasia ✔
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Option A: 47 XXY
Option B: 46 XY
Option C: 45 X
Option D: 46 XXY
Correct Answer: 47 XXY ✔
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Option A: Trisomy of 21 chromosome
Option B: Mosaicism of 21 chromosome
Option C: Robersonian translocation of 21.21, 21.18
Option D: Deletion of 21
Correct Answer: Deletion of 21 ✔
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Option A: Exprss MHC class I proteins
Option B: Unable to express MHC class I proteins
Option C: Express MHC class II proteins
Option D: Unable to express MHC class II proteins
Correct Answer: Unable to express MHC class I proteins ✔
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Option A: Osteogenic sarcoma
Option B: Osteoclastoma
Option C: Ewings sarcoma
Option D: Chondro sarcoma
Correct Answer: Osteoclastoma ✔
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Option A: Daughter are carrier
Option B: Sons are infected
Option C: Daughter are infeted
Option D: All are normal
Correct Answer: Daughter are carrier ✔
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Option A: Ewing’s sarcoma
Option B: Osteosarcoma
Option C: Chondrosarcoma
Option D: Giant cell tumour
Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma ✔
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Option A: Endothelial injury
Option B: Peripheral vasodilation
Option C: Increased vascular permeability
Option D: Cytokine action
Correct Answer: Cytokine action ✔
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Option A: Congenital thymic aplasia
Option B: Deficiency of complement factor
Option C: Inborn error of metabolism
Option D: Chromosomal anomaly
Correct Answer: Congenital thymic aplasia ✔
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Option A: Pyogenic bacterial meningitis
Option B: Viral meningitis
Option C: Fungal meningitis
Option D: Tuberculous meningitis
Correct Answer: Viral meningitis ✔
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Option A: Provide differentiated terminal cells
Option B: Reconstitution of Bone marrow
Option C: Formation of the ovum
Option D: Act as a repair system for the body
Correct Answer: Reconstitution of Bone marrow ✔
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Option A: IgM spike increase
Option B: Direct plasma cell deposition in glomerular capilaries leads to kidney damage
Option C: IL 8 is a marker for bone lesions
Option D: Invariably increase in alkaline phosphatase
Correct Answer: IgM spike increase ✔
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Option A: G banding
Option B: C banding
Option C: Q banding
Option D: Brd V-staining
Correct Answer: G banding ✔
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Option A: Tumor marker
Option B: Proto oncogene
Option C: Oncogene
Option D: Bacterial antigen
Correct Answer: Tumor marker ✔
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Option A: Xeroderma pigmentosum
Option B: Albinism
Option C: Icthyosis
Option D: Sickle cell anaemia
Correct Answer: Xeroderma pigmentosum ✔
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Option A: Brain parenchyma
Option B: Spinal card
Option C: Basal cisternae
Option D: Medulla oblongata
Correct Answer: Brain parenchyma ✔
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Option A: There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult
Option B: Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
Option C: Proteinase is absent in fetus
Option D: Absence of CD kinase
Correct Answer: There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult ✔
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Option A: Clara cells
Option B: Langerhans cells
Option C: Brush cells
Option D: Klutischky cells
Correct Answer: Langerhans cells ✔
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Option A: Metaphase
Option B: Interphase
Option C: Anaphase
Option D: Prophase
Correct Answer: Interphase ✔
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Option A: Appendicitis
Option B: Enteric fever
Option C: Meningitis
Option D: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Enteric fever ✔
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Option A: Plummer vinson syndrome
Option B: Klinefelter syndrome
Option C: Sturge weber syndrome
Option D: Multiple hamartoma syndrome
Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome ✔
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Option A: Coronary arteries
Option B: Cerebral arteries
Option C: Pulmonary arteries
Option D: Renal arteries
Correct Answer: Pulmonary arteries ✔
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Option A: Pyknosis
Option B: Karyolysis
Option C: Karyorhexis
Option D: None
Correct Answer: Karyolysis ✔
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Option A: Monocytes
Option B: Plasma cells
Option C: Neutrophils
Option D: Eosinophils
Correct Answer: Neutrophils ✔
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Option A: Interferon
Option B: Prostaglandins
Option C: TNF
Option D: Myeloperoxidase
Correct Answer: Interferon ✔
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Option A: C3a, C5a
Option B: C3b, C5a
Option C: C2, C3
Option D: C3b, C5b
Correct Answer: C3a, C5a ✔
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Option A: Kupffer cells in liver
Option B: Microglial cells in nervous system
Option C: Histiocytes in connective tissues
Option D: All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above ✔
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Option A: Fernandez reaction
Option B: Mituda reaction
Option C: Wasserman reaction
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Fernandez reaction ✔
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Option A: High capacity to divide
Option B: Limited capacity to divide
Option C: Long life span as compared to lymphocytes
Option D: Both B and C
Correct Answer: Both B and C ✔
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Option A: Cell mediated
Option B: Humoral
Option C: Foreign body reaction
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Cell mediated ✔
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Option A: Presence of macrophages
Option B: Tissue
Option C: Proliferation of fibroblasts and endothelial cells
Option D: All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above ✔
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Option A: Plasma cells
Option B: Macrophages
Option C: Lymphocytes
Option D: PMN’s
Correct Answer: D. PMN’s ✔
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Option A: It has a specific gravity of 1.018
Option B: It has a low fibrin content
Option C: It has more than 3% proteins
Option D: It is mucinous in consistency
Correct Answer: It has a low fibrin content ✔
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Option A: Lepromatous leprosy
Option B: Tuberculoid leprosy
Option C: Borderline lepromatous leprosy
Option D: Intermediate leprosy
Correct Answer: Lepromatous leprosy ✔
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Option A: Stimulation of T-lymphocytes
Option B: Inhibits of B-lymphocytes
Option C: Inhibits the chemotaxis of neutrophils and macrophages
Option D: Decreases firbroblast and bone resorption activity
Correct Answer: Stimulation of T-lymphocytes ✔
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Which of the following cells are more abundant in chronic inflammation than in acute inflammation ?
Option A: Plasma cells
Option B: Eosinophils
Option C: Neutrophils
Option D: Normoblats
Correct Answer: Plasma cells ✔
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Option A: Exudation
Option B: Congestion
Option C: Transudation
Option D: Proliferation
Correct Answer: Proliferation ✔
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Option A: Increase capillary permeability
Option B: Uterine contraction
Option C: Lower blood pressure
Option D: Elevates blood pressure
Correct Answer: Elevates blood pressure ✔
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Option A: Associated inflammatory conditions
Option B: Low protein content
Option C: Tendency to clot
Option D: Specific gravity of above 1.018
Correct Answer: Low protein content ✔
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Option A: Leukocyte
Option B: Marcophage
Option C: Mast cell
Option D: Fibroblast
Correct Answer: Mast cell ✔
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Option A: Monocytes
Option B: Plasma cells
Option C: Neutrophils
Option D: Basophils
Correct Answer: Neutrophils ✔
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Option A: Plasma cells
Option B: Lymphocytes
Option C: Monocytes
Option D: Mast cells
Correct Answer: Mast cells ✔
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Option A: Smooth muscle contraction
Option B: Dilatation of blood vessels
Option C: Pain
Option D: Opsonisation
Correct Answer: Opsonisation ✔
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Option A: It is associated with many types of severe inflammation
Option B: It has low protein content
Option C: It has fibrin precipitates
Option D: It induces connective tissue organization
Correct Answer: It has low protein content ✔
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Option A: Vasodilation
Option B: Stasis of blood
Option C: Increased vascular permeability
Option D: Decreased hydrostatic pressure
Correct Answer: Decreased hydrostatic pressure ✔
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Option A: Tuberculoid leprosy
Option B: Ideterminate leprosy
Option C: Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
Option D: lepromatous leprosy
Correct Answer: lepromatous leprosy ✔
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Option A: Presence of acute inflammation
Option B: Formation of caseous pus with signs of acute inflammation
Option C: Formation of caseous pus without signs of acute inflammation
Option D: Infected cyst
Correct Answer: Formation of caseous pus without signs of acute inflammation ✔
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