Medical MCQs

Option A: Rh -ve mother and Rh -ve foetus

Option B: Rh -ve mother and Rh +ve foetus

Option C: Rh +ve mother and Rh -ve foetus

Option D: Rh +ve mother and Rh +ve foetus

Correct Answer: Rh -ve mother and Rh +ve foetus ✔

Option A: Cytotoxic drugs

Option B: Whole body irradiation

Option C: HIV infection

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Duodenum

Option B: Stomach

Option C: Intestine

Option D: Ileum

Correct Answer: Stomach ✔

Option A: Plummer – Vinson syndrome

Option B: Trotters syndrome

Option C: Vincent stomatitis

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: A. Plummer – Vinson syndrome ✔

Option A: Neutropenia

Option B: Leukemia

Option C: Polycythemia

Option D: Anaemia

Correct Answer: Polycythemia ✔

Option A: dried freeze plasma

Option B: factor VIII concentrate

Option C: Whole blood

Option D: cryoprecipitate

Correct Answer: factor VIII concentrate ✔

Option A: Platelet function

Option B: capillary fragility

Option C: Intrinsic pathway

Option D: Extrinic pathway

Correct Answer: capillary fragility ✔

Option A: APTT

Option B: BT

Option C: PT

Option D: CBP

Correct Answer: APTT ✔

Option A: Hemolytic anemia

Option B: chronic disease

Option C: Acute blood loss

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Sickle cell anemia

Option B: Thalassemia

Option C: Hereditary spherocytosis

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Option B: Multiple myeloma

Option C: Burkitt’s lymphoma

Option D: Infectious mononucleosis

Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma ✔

Option A: Macrocytic hyperchromic

Option B: Macrocytic hypochromic

Option C: Macrocytic normochromic

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Macrocytic normochromic ✔

Option A: Eosinophilis

Option B: Plasma cells

Option C: Reed-sternberg cells

Option D: Giant cells

Correct Answer: Reed-sternberg cells ✔

Option A: Clavicle

Option B: Vertebrae

Option C: Pelvis

Option D: Lungs

Correct Answer: Vertebrae ✔

Option A: Megaloblastic anemia

Option B: Iron deficiency anemia

Option C: Thalassemia

Option D: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

Correct Answer: Megaloblastic anemia ✔

Option A: Factor IX

Option B: Factor X

Option C: Factor VIII

Option D: Factor V

Correct Answer: Factor IX ✔

Option A: Heterozygous sickle cell trait

Option B: Thalassemia major

Option C: Homozygous sickle cell anemia

Option D: Megaloblastic anemia

Correct Answer: Thalassemia major ✔

Option A: Decrease in hemoglobin

Option B: Increase in hemoglobin

Option C: Increase in palatelets

Option D: Decrease in platelets

Correct Answer: Decrease in hemoglobin ✔

Option A: Affects males and females equally

Option B: Increased clotting time in all patients

Option C: Nerve blocks can be given safely

Option D: Is a congenital disorder

Correct Answer: Increased clotting time in all patients ✔

Option A: Erythrocytes

Option B: Granulocytes

Option C: Eosinophils

Option D: Monocytes

Correct Answer: Granulocytes ✔

Option A: Capillary dilation

Option B: Erythrocyte engorgement

Option C: Edema

Option D: WBC infiltration

Correct Answer: WBC infiltration ✔

Option A: Pernicious anemia

Option B: Thalassemia

Option C: Aplastic anemia

Option D: Sprue

Correct Answer: Aplastic anemia ✔

Option A: Folic acid

Option B: Vitamin B1

Option C: Vitamin B6

Option D: Vitamin B12

Correct Answer: Vitamin B1 ✔

Option A: Valine for glutamic acid at the sixth position of beta chain

Option B: Phenylalanine for glutamic acid

Option C: Tyrosine for valine at the 6th position at beta chain

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Valine for glutamic acid at the sixth position of beta chain ✔

Option A: Factor VIII concentrate

Option B: Cryoprecipitate

Option C: EACA

Option D: Platelet factor

Correct Answer: Platelet factor ✔

Option A: Leucocytosis

Option B: Leucopenia

Option C: Leucorrhoea

Option D: Leukemia

Correct Answer: Leucopenia ✔

Option A: Liquefactive necrosis

Option B: Coagulative necrosis

Option C: Chronic inflammation

Option D: Scar tissue

Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis ✔

Option A: Actinomycosis

Option B: Tuberculosis

Option C: Rabies

Option D: Secondary Iues

Correct Answer: Tuberculosis ✔

Option A: Liquefaction degeneration

Option B: Coagulative necrosis

Option C: Neo angiogenesis

Option D: Epithelial dysplasia

Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis ✔

Option A: Tuberculosis

Option B: Sarcoidosis

Option C: Leprosy

Option D: Midline lethal granuloma

Correct Answer: Tuberculosis ✔

Option A: G1

Option B: S

Option C: G2

Option D: M

Correct Answer: S ✔

Option A: It is more common in heart, skin and skeletal tissue

Option B: In 70% of cases don’t have any associated disease

Option C: In 50% of cases have some form of plasma cell dyscrasias such as multiple myeloma

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Hyaline degeneartion

Option B: Amyloid degeneration

Option C: Hydropic degeneration

Option D: Fatty degeneration

Correct Answer: Hyaline degeneartion ✔

Option A: Nuclear basophilia

Option B: Nuclear shrinkage

Option C: Nucleus disintegration

Option D: Nucleolus disintegration

Correct Answer: Nuclear shrinkage ✔

Option A: Reversible injury

Option B: Irreversible injury

Option C: Both A and B

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Reversible injury ✔

Option A: Hypoparathyroidism

Option B: Vitamin D deficiency

Option C: Hypercalcemia

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Hypercalcemia ✔

Option A: Apoptosis

Option B: Lysis

Option C: Autolysis

Option D: Autopsy

Correct Answer: Apoptosis ✔

Option A: Brain

Option B: Lung

Option C: Liver

Option D: Spleen

Correct Answer: Brain ✔

Option A: Skin layers

Option B: Salivary glands

Option C: Normal tissues

Option D: Dead tissue

Correct Answer: Dead tissue ✔

Option A: AL protein

Option B: a2 microglobulin

Option C: a-amyloid protein

Option D: Transthyretin

Correct Answer: Transthyretin ✔

Option A: Occurs in damaged tissue

Option B: Tuberculous lesions

Option C: Atherosclerotic lesions

Option D: Serum calcium levels are high

Correct Answer: Serum calcium levels are high ✔

Option A: Apoptotic cell death

Option B: Blood coagulation

Option C: Mitotic cell division

Option D: G1 to S phase of cell cycle

Correct Answer: Apoptotic cell death ✔

Option A: Fatty change

Option B: Hyaline change

Option C: Amy

Option D: Atrophy

Correct Answer: Fatty change ✔

Option A: Caseation

Option B: Coagulation

Option C: Liquefaction

Option D: Fibrinoid

Correct Answer: Liquefaction ✔

Option A: Myxoedema

Option B: Pitting edema

Option C: Anasarca

Option D: Dependent edema

Correct Answer: Anasarca ✔

Option A: Single cell necrosis

Option B: Intracytoplasmic accumulation

Option C: Degenerative change

Option D: Neoplastic change in the cell

Correct Answer: Single cell necrosis ✔

Option A: Kidney

Option B: Spleen

Option C: Liver

Option D: Heart

Correct Answer: Kidney ✔

Option A: Multiple myeloma

Option B: Tuberculosis

Option C: Hodgkin’s diseaes

Option D: Chronic osteomyelitis

Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma ✔

Option A: Necrosis

Option B: Autolysis

Option C: Apoptosis

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Apoptosis ✔

Option A: Liquefactive necrosis

Option B: Coagulative nacrosis

Option C: Caseous necrosis

Option D: Fat necrosis

Correct Answer: Coagulative nacrosis ✔

Option A: Coagulation necrosis Tuberculosis

Option B: Caseation yellow fever

Option C: Fat necrosis Pancreatitis

Option D: Gumma infarction

Correct Answer: Fat necrosis Pancreatitis ✔

Option A: Chronic osteomyelitis

Option B: Periostitis

Option C: Acute osteomyelitis

Option D: Multiple myeloma

Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma ✔

Option A: Congo Red

Option B: Masson’s toichrome

Option C: Vonkosa

Option D: Reticulin

Correct Answer: Congo Red ✔

Option A: Vasospasm

Option B: Peripheral neuritis

Option C: Atheroslerosis

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Atheroslerosis ✔

Option A: Characteristic of focal bacterial infections

Option B: Characteristic of hypoxic death

Option C: Characteristic by loss of tissue architecture

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Characteristic of hypoxic death ✔

Option A: Acute infection

Option B: Carrier state

Option C: Prodromal phase

Option D: Convalescence

Correct Answer: Acute infection ✔

Option A: Virus

Option B: Bacteria

Option C: Spirochete

Option D: Anaerobe

Correct Answer: Virus ✔

Option A: New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses

Option B: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit

Option C: Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids

Option D: Contain DNA but no RNA

Correct Answer: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit ✔

Option A: Cryptococcosis

Option B: Tuberculosis

Option C: Candidiasis

Option D: Aspergilosis

Correct Answer: Candidiasis ✔

Option A: Chick embryo

Option B: Blood agar

Option C: Guinea pigs

Option D: Cell culture

Correct Answer: Blood agar ✔

Option A: 1 week

Option B: 6 week

Option C: 3 months

Option D: 6 months

Correct Answer: 1 week ✔

Option A: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies

Option B: The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS

Option C: The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies ✔

Option A: Red blood cells

Option B: Fibroblasts

Option C: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)

Option D: Mast cells

Correct Answer: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4) ✔

Option A: Apthous stomatitis

Option B: Tuberculosis

Option C: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

Option D: Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Correct Answer: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia ✔

Option A: Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus

Option B: Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus

Option C: Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus

Option D: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus

Correct Answer: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus ✔

Option A: Rheo

Option B: Retro

Option C: Rhabdo

Option D: Flavi

Correct Answer: Retro ✔

Option A: Pox virus

Option B: Measles virus

Option C: Hepatitis B virus

Option D: HIV

Correct Answer: Measles virus ✔

Option A: Rabies

Option B: Poliomyelitis

Option C: Influenza

Option D: Herpes

Correct Answer: Rabies ✔

Option A: 7-14 days

Option B: 1 months

Option C: 1-2 years

Option D: 3-6 months

Correct Answer: 7-14 days ✔

Option A: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid

Option B: Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell

Option C: Viruses which are genetically deficient

Option D: Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective

Correct Answer: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid ✔

Option A: Japanese encephalitis

Option B: Kuru

Option C: Yellow fever

Option D: Rabies

Correct Answer: Japanese encephalitis ✔

Option A: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane

Option B: Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane

Option C: Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane ✔

Option A: Enzymes

Option B: Protein coat

Option C: Polysaccharide

Option D: Lipids

Correct Answer: Protein coat ✔

Option A: Nucleotides

Option B: Phospholipids

Option C: Scleroproteins

Option D: Nucleoproteins

Correct Answer: Nucleoproteins ✔

Option A: Boiling

Option B: Ethanol

Option C: Cidex

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Gastrointestinal tract

Option B: Nasal mucosa

Option C: Lung

Option D: Skin

Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal tract ✔

Option A: Simple carriers

Option B: Late convalescence

Option C: High infectivity

Option D: Carrier status

Correct Answer: High infectivity ✔

Option A: Carcinoma Cervix

Option B: Hepatoma

Option C: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Option D: Lymphoma

Correct Answer: Hepatoma ✔

Option A: Extracellular infectious virus particle

Option B: Smallest virus

Option C: A smallest particle similar to virus

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Extracellular infectious virus particle ✔

Option A: Viral interference

Option B: Mutation

Option C: Supervision

Option D: Permutation

Correct Answer: Viral interference ✔

Option A: Bunya virus

Option B: Reo virus

Option C: Calci virus

Option D: Rhabdo virus

Correct Answer: Reo virus ✔

Option A: HBCAg

Option B: HBeAg

Option C: Anti-HBC

Option D: Anti-HBS

Correct Answer: HBeAg ✔

Option A: HBs Ag

Option B: IgM anti – HBc

Option C: Anti HBs

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: B. IgM anti – HBc ✔

Option A: Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity

Option B: Give ARV

Option C: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage

Option D: Immediately wash wound with soap and water

Correct Answer: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage ✔

Option A: Measles virus

Option B: Herpes Virus

Option C: Papavo virus

Option D: Adeno virus

Correct Answer: Measles virus ✔

Option A: Immunodeficiency virus

Option B: Influenza

Option C: Polio virus

Option D: Hepatitis virus

Correct Answer: Immunodeficiency virus ✔

Option A: Type 6,12,18

Option B: 16,18,31

Option C: 6,8,11

Option D: 3,10,19

Correct Answer: 16,18,31 ✔

Option A: Interferon production

Option B: Toxin production

Option C: Lymphocytes production

Option D: Neutrophils production

Correct Answer: Interferon production ✔

Option A: RNA -DNA-RNA

Option B: RNA-DNA

Option C: DNA-RNA

Option D: DNA-RNA-DNA

Correct Answer: RNA -DNA-RNA ✔

Option A: Human Herpes Virus 3

Option B: Human Herpes Virus 1

Option C: Human Herpes Virus 8

Option D: Human Herpes Virus 4

Correct Answer: Human Herpes Virus 4 ✔

Option A: 2 weeks

Option B: 4 weeks

Option C: 9 weeks

Option D: 12 weeks

Correct Answer: 4 weeks ✔

Option A: ELISA

Option B: Western blot

Option C: P24 antigen

Option D: Lymph node biopsy

Correct Answer: P24 antigen ✔

Option A: Resistance to hepatitis B

Option B: Acute infection

Option C: Good prognosis

Option D: Hepatocellular carcinoma

Correct Answer: Good prognosis ✔

Option A: Simple carriers

Option B: Late convalescence

Option C: High infectivity

Option D: Carrier status

Correct Answer: High infectivity ✔

Option A: HBV

Option B: HCV

Option C: HDV

Option D: HEV

Correct Answer: HEV ✔

Option A: Measles

Option B: Mumps

Option C: Rubella

Option D: Hepatitis B

Correct Answer: Hepatitis B ✔

Option A: Flavi virus

Option B: Togaviridae

Option C: Reoviridae

Option D: Rhabdoviridae

Correct Answer: Flavi virus ✔

Option A: It can be detected during the window period

Option B: Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:

Option C: Virus load parallel P24 titre

Option D: It remains during asymptomatic phase

Correct Answer: It remains during asymptomatic phase ✔

Option A: Herpes Simplex

Option B: Mumps

Option C: Rubella

Option D: Papilloma

Correct Answer: Rubella ✔

Option A: Chicken pox

Option B: Rabies

Option C: Small pox

Option D: Measles

Correct Answer: Measles ✔