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Medical MCQs

Option A: Plemorphic adenoma

Option B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Option C: Muceopidermoid carcinoma

Option D: Adenolymphoma

Correct Answer: Muceopidermoid carcinoma


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Option A: An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland

Option B: A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland

Option C: Carcinoma of the parotid gland

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland


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Option A: cheeks

Option B: dorsum of tongue

Option C: palate

Option D: gingival

Correct Answer: palate


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Option A: Rapid progressive painless enlargement

Option B: Nodular consistency

Option C: Supramental and preauricular lymphadenopathy

Option D: Facial paralysis

Correct Answer: Supramental and preauricular lymphadenopathy


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Option A: Hemifacial microstomia

Option B: LADD syndrome

Option C: Mandibulo-facial dysostosis (Treacher Collins)

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Raynaud’s phenomena

Option B: Arthritis

Option C: Lymphadenopathy

Option D: Thrombocytopenia

Correct Answer: Arthritis


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Option A: Anticholinergic drugs

Option B: Dehydration

Option C: Sjogren’s syndrome

Option D: Oral sepsis

Correct Answer: Oral sepsis


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Option A: Lymphoma

Option B: Pleomorphic adenoma

Option C: Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Option D: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Correct Answer: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma


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Option A: Pleomorphic Adenoma

Option B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Option C: Basal cell carcinoma

Option D: Squamous cell carcinoma

Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma


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Option A: Tongue

Option B: Cheek

Option C: Palate

Option D: Neck

Correct Answer: Palate


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Option A: Epidemic parotitis

Option B: Iodine mumps

Option C: Nutritional mumps

Option D: Nonspecific mumps

Correct Answer: Iodine mumps


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Option A: produce pain on eating

Option B: Are commonest in the parotid ducts

Option C: Are common cause of acute parotitis

Option D: Are associated with hypercaleaemic states

Correct Answer: produce pain on eating


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Option A: Unaffected

Option B: Low

Option C: High

Option D: Increased in morning & decrease in day

Correct Answer: Low


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Option A: MRI shows salt and pepper appearance

Option B: Lacrimal gland enlargement is common

Option C: Minor salivary gland biopsy is diagnostic test

Option D: Pilocarpine is the most useful and convenient drug in its treatment

Correct Answer: Lacrimal gland enlargement is common


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Option A: Buccal mucosa

Option B: Upper lip

Option C: Floor of the mouth

Option D: Palate

Correct Answer: Palate


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Option A: Exocrine glands

Option B: Paracrine glands

Option C: Endocrine glands

Option D: Autocrine glands

Correct Answer: Exocrine glands


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Option A: Basal cell adenocarcinoma

Option B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Option C: Adenoid Cystic carcinoma

Option D: Salivary duct carcinoma

Correct Answer: Basal cell adenocarcinoma


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Option A: Patrotid

Option B: Submanidbular

Option C: Sublingual

Option D: Minor

Correct Answer: Minor


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Option A: Basal cell adenocarcinoma

Option B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Option C: Adenoid Cystic carcinoma

Option D: Salivary duct carcinoma

Correct Answer: Basal cell adenocarcinoma


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Option A: Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Option B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Option C: Pleomorphic adenoma

Option D: Warthin’s tumour

Correct Answer: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma


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Option A: Pleomorphic adenoma

Option B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Option C: Acinic cell tumour

Option D: Warthin tumour

Correct Answer: Warthin tumour


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Option A: Dentigerous cyst

Option B: Odontogenic deratocyst

Option C: Unicystic ameloblastoma

Option D: Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

Correct Answer: Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum


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Option A: a teratomatous tumour of the salivary gland

Option B: a neuroendocrine cell tumour

Option C: multiple ectopic tissue proliferating in the salivary gland

Option D: myoepithelial or ductal reserve cell origin

Correct Answer: a neuroendocrine cell tumour


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Option A: Hydroxyapatitie

Option B: Potassium cloride

Option C: Unknown compounds of phosphats

Option D: Calcium chloride

Correct Answer: Hydroxyapatitie


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Option A: Sjogren’s syndrome

Option B: Multiple sclerosis

Option C: SLE

Option D: Myasthenia gravis

Correct Answer: A. Sjogren’s syndrome


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Option A: Tongue

Option B: Cheek

Option C: Palate

Option D: Neck

Correct Answer: Palate


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Option A: Adeno carcinoma

Option B: Adeno cystic lymphoma

Option C: Warthin’s tumour

Option D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Correct Answer: C. Warthin’s tumour


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Option A: Most common in submandibular gland

Option B: Usually malignant

Option C: Most common in parotid gland

Option D: Associated with calculi

Correct Answer: Most common in parotid gland


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Option A: Parotid salivary gland

Option B: Minor salivary glands

Option C: Submandibular salivary gland

Option D: Sublingual salivary gland

Correct Answer: Parotid salivary gland


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Option A: Sicca syndrome

Option B: Sjogren’s syndrome

Option C: Mickulicz’s disease

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: C. Mickulicz’s disease


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Option A: Cholinergic drugs

Option B: Anticholinergic drugs

Option C: Andrenergic drugs

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Cholinergic drugs


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Option A: Ludwig’s angina

Option B: Stone or Sialolithiasis

Option C: Enlarged lymph nodes

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Enlarged lymph nodes


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Option A: Mucoepidermoid cell carcinoma

Option B: Acinar cell carcinoma

Option C: Sjogren’s syndrome

Option D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Correct Answer: C. Sjogren’s syndrome


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Option A: Aging

Option B: Alcoholism

Option C: Malnutrition

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Alcoholism


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Option A: Cylindroma

Option B: Pindborg tumor

Option C: Warthins tumor

Option D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Correct Answer: Cylindroma


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Option A: Rupture of a salivary duct

Option B: Partial or complete compression of the salivary acini

Option C: Inflammatory changes in the glandular interestitial tissue

Option D: Partial or complete obstruction of teh salivary duct by calculus

Correct Answer: Rupture of a salivary duct


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Option A: Acute bacterial sialadenitis

Option B: Mumps

Option C: Chronic backerial sialadenitis

Option D: Necrotizing sialometaplasia

Correct Answer: Mumps


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Option A: Elderly diabetics

Option B: Patient undergoing radiation therapy

Option C: Patients suffering from parkinsonism

Option D: Patients on phenothiazine drugs

Correct Answer: Patients suffering from parkinsonism


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Option A: Pleomorphic adenoma

Option B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Option C: Warthin’s tumor

Option D: Ductal papilloma

Correct Answer: Adenoid cystic carcinoma


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Option A: Actinomycosis

Option B: Squamous cell carcinoma

Option C: Pleomorphic adenoma

Option D: Necrotizing sialometaplasia

Correct Answer: Necrotizing sialometaplasia


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Option A: An inflammatory disease

Option B: Neoplastic disease

Option C: An autoimmune disease

Option D: Viral infection

Correct Answer: An autoimmune disease


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Option A: Myoepithelial cells

Option B: Aciner cells

Option C: Connective tissue

Option D: Stem cells

Correct Answer: Myoepithelial cells


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Option A: A salivary duct obstruction can cause a unilateral swelling in the floor of the mouth that is largest before a meal and smallest after a meal

Option B: The lesion termed a ranula is associated with the sublingual salivary gland

Option C: The sublingual salivary gland is the most common site of salivary gland neoplasia

Option D: A pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland neoplasm

Correct Answer: The sublingual salivary gland is the most common site of salivary gland neoplasia


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Option A: Submandibular gland

Option B: Parotid gland

Option C: Sub lingual glands

Option D: Lingual glands

Correct Answer: Submandibular gland


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Option A: Temporal arteritis

Option B: Neuralgia

Option C: Neuritis

Option D: Causalgia

Correct Answer: Causalgia


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Option A: burning sensations in mouth

Option B: excessive salivation

Option C: Glossodynia

Option D: Dysphagia

Correct Answer: Dysphagia


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Option A: valproic acid

Option B: carbamazepine

Option C: Diphen hydantoin

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: carbamazepine


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Option A: Whistling

Option B: chewing

Option C: Protruding the tongue

Option D: Swallowing

Correct Answer: Whistling


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Option A: sub mandibular gland

Option B: Seventh cranial nerve

Option C: Temporomandibular joint

Option D: Glosso pharyngeal nerve

Correct Answer: Seventh cranial nerve


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Option A: Red

Option B: Yellow

Option C: White

Option D: Blue

Correct Answer: White


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Option A: VII

Option B: IX

Option C: X

Option D: II

Correct Answer: VII


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Option A: it is unilateral

Option B: it is of throbbing nature

Option C: it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc

Option D: occurs in bouts

Correct Answer: it is of throbbing nature


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Option A: Pharynx

Option B: Oropharynx

Option C: Larynx

Option D: Nasopharynx

Correct Answer: Nasopharynx


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Option A: Sarcoidosis

Option B: Multiple sclerosis

Option C: Trigeminal neuralgia

Option D: Lupus erythematosis

Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia


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Option A: Loss of taste sensation from Ant. 2/3 of tongue

Option B: Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle

Option C: Loss of innervation to stapedius

Option D: Loss of lacrimal secretion

Correct Answer: Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle


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Option A: Excessive lacrimation

Option B: pain during mandibular movement

Option C: Stabbing type pain orginate in the tonsillar regions

Option D: When the jaws are closed the pain subsided

Correct Answer: Excessive lacrimation


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Option A: Carbamazipine

Option B: acetaminophen

Option C: phenytoin sodium

Option D: Baclofen

Correct Answer: acetaminophen


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Option A: Horner’s syndrome

Option B: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia

Option C: Trotter’s syndrome

Option D: Eagles syndrome

Correct Answer: C. Trotter’s syndrome


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Option A: Auriculotemporal Neuralgia

Option B: Trigeminal Neuralgia

Option C: Sphenopalatine Neuralgia

Option D: Glossopharyngeal Neuralgia

Correct Answer: Sphenopalatine Neuralgia


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Option A: Phenytoin

Option B: Gabapentin

Option C: Baclofen

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Cluster headache

Option B: Giant cell arteritis

Option C: Anaesthesia dolorosa

Option D: Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

Correct Answer: Anaesthesia dolorosa


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Option A: Morphine administration

Option B: Breathing oxygen

Option C: Aspirin administration

Option D: Sublingual nitroglycerine administration

Correct Answer: Breathing oxygen


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Option A: Oral lichen planus

Option B: Oral submucous fibrosis

Option C: Aphthous stomatitis

Option D: No detectable oral disease

Correct Answer: No detectable oral disease


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Option A: Ergontamine tortrate

Option B: Methysergide

Option C: Propranolol

Option D: Caffeine

Correct Answer: Ergontamine tortrate


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Option A: Progressive systemic sclerosis

Option B: Tetanus

Option C: Multiple sclerosis

Option D: Osteomalacia

Correct Answer: Progressive systemic sclerosis


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Option A: Myasthenia gravis

Option B: Bell’s palsy

Option C: TMJ dysfunction syndrome

Option D: Multiple sclerosis

Correct Answer: B. Bell’s palsy


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Option A: Exposure to cold

Option B: Tooth extraction

Option C: Local and systemic infection

Option D: Any of the above

Correct Answer: Any of the above


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Option A: Massetor

Option B: Hyoglossus

Option C: Stylohyoid

Option D: Lateral pterygoid

Correct Answer: Massetor


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Option A: Does not disturb the patient during sleep

Option B: Can be treated with NSAID’s

Option C: Always bilateral in distribution

Option D: Is a hereditary condition

Correct Answer: Does not disturb the patient during sleep


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Option A: Clinical observation only

Option B: Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy

Option C: No monitoring

Option D: Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptoms arise

Correct Answer: Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy


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Option A: Fanconi’s

Option B: Auriculotemporal

Option C: Horner’s

Option D: Cushin’s

Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal


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Option A: Cowden syndrome

Option B: Tic doulourex

Option C: Eagle’s syndrome

Option D: Reiter’s syndrome

Correct Answer: C. Eagle’s syndrome


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Option A: Trigeminal neuralgia

Option B: Bell’s palsy

Option C: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia

Option D: Sphenopalatine neuralgia

Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia


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Option A: Epilepsy

Option B: MPDS

Option C: Myasthenia gravis

Option D: Cerebral palsy

Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis


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Option A: Submandibular salivary gland

Option B: Parotid gland

Option C: sublingual salivary gland

Option D: TMJ

Correct Answer: Parotid gland


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Option A: Ptosis

Option B: Anhydrosis

Option C: Flushing

Option D: Mydriasis

Correct Answer: Mydriasis


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Option A: Paralysis of one side of the face

Option B: Uncontrollable twitching of muscles

Option C: Sharp, excruciating pain of short duration

Option D: Prolonged episodes of plain on one side of the face

Correct Answer: Sharp, excruciating pain of short duration


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Option A: MPDS

Option B: Trigeminal neuralgia

Option C: Facial palsy

Option D: Neurosis

Correct Answer: MPDS


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Option A: Bilateral involvement of the side of the face

Option B: Inability to whistle

Option C: No loss of muscular control

Option D: Closing of the eyes

Correct Answer: Inability to whistle


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Option A: Premature exfoliation of primary teeth

Option B: Hypoplastic defects

Option C: Progressive painless symmetric

Option D: A + C

Correct Answer: A + C


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Option A: Jaffe’s syndrome

Option B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia

Option C: Abright’s syndrome

Option D: Osteogenesi imperfecta

Correct Answer: C. Abright’s syndrome


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Option A: Osteorthritis

Option B: Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Option C: Paget’s disease

Option D: Rheumatoid arthitis

Correct Answer: C. Paget’s disease


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Option A: blue sclera, sparse hair, anhydrosis

Option B: enlarged hand, feet, maxilla, mandible

Option C: Blue sclera, brittle bones opalescent dentin

Option D: blue sclera, arachnodactyly, brittle bones

Correct Answer: Blue sclera, brittle bones opalescent dentin


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Option A: Osteopetrsis

Option B: Pagets disease

Option C: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Option D: Infantile hyperostosis

Correct Answer: Infantile hyperostosis


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Option A: Peget’s disease

Option B: Osteoclerosis

Option C: Pariapical cemential dysplasia

Option D: Ossifying fibroma

Correct Answer: A. Peget’s disease


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Option A: Hypophosphatasia

Option B: Pagets disease

Option C: Fibrous dysplasia

Option D: Cherubism

Correct Answer: Pagets disease


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Option A: pierre robinson syndrome

Option B: Cleft palate

Option C: Cleidocranial dysplasia

Option D: Craniofacial dysostosis

Correct Answer: pierre robinson syndrome


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Option A: Craniofacial dysostosis

Option B: Hyperthyroidism

Option C: Cleidocranial dysostosis

Option D: Osteitis deformans

Correct Answer: Cleidocranial dysostosis


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Option A: Unilocular lesion

Option B: Bilateral

Option C: Presence of Giant cell

Option D: Delayed eruption of permanent teeth

Correct Answer: Unilocular lesion


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Option A: Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption

Option B: Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption

Option C: Persence of extra collagen fibres and less calcification resulting in resistance of bones to fracture

Option D: Presence of numerous osteoclasts and a few osteoblasts

Correct Answer: Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption


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Option A: Rickets

Option B: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Option C: Osteomyelitis

Option D: Osteoma

Correct Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta


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Option A: Temporalis

Option B: Buccinator

Option C: Masseter

Option D: Lateral pterygoid

Correct Answer: Lateral pterygoid


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Option A: Pagets disease

Option B: Weing’s sarcoma

Option C: Osteosarcoma

Option D: Fibrous dysplasia

Correct Answer: Fibrous dysplasia


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Option A: Hypoparathyroidism

Option B: Cleidocranial dysplasia

Option C: Pierre Robin Syndrome

Option D: Mongolism (Down’s Syndrome

Correct Answer: Cleidocranial dysplasia


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Option A: fibrous dysplasia

Option B: paget’s disease

Option C: Osteopetrosis

Option D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Correct Answer: B. paget’s disease


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Option A: Ankylosis

Option B: Synovial chondromatosis

Option C: Subluxation

Option D: Osteorthritis

Correct Answer: Ankylosis


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Option A: Maily affects young females

Option B: is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits are grinding and clenching

Option C: Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition

Option D: The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic

Correct Answer: The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic


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Option A: Maxillary prognathism

Option B: Mandibular retrognathia

Option C: Mandibular prognathism

Option D: Maxillary hypoplasia

Correct Answer: Maxillary hypoplasia


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Option A: Hyper parathyroidism

Option B: Fibrous dysplasia

Option C: Condensing osteitis

Option D: Osteopetrosis

Correct Answer: Hyper parathyroidism


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Option A: Fibrous dysplasia

Option B: Cherubism

Option C: Craniofacial dysostosis

Option D: Chondro-ectodermal dysplasia

Correct Answer: Cherubism


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