Option A: G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface
Option B: All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind each other for G protein to act
Option C: G Proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit
Option D: G protein is bound to GTP in resting state
Correct Answer: G Proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit ✔
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Option A: Electrical insulators
Option B: Irons
Option C: Non electrical insulators
Option D: Electrolytes
Correct Answer: Electrical insulators ✔
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Option A: Myoglobin
Option B: Cytochrome
Option C: Catalase
Option D: Pyruvate kinase
Correct Answer: Pyruvate kinase ✔
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Option A: Rice
Option B: Human milk
Option C: Egg yolk
Option D: Cow’s milk
Correct Answer: Rice ✔
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Option A: Transferrin
Option B: Ferritin
Option C: Apoferritin
Option D: Lactoferrin
Correct Answer: Transferrin ✔
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Option A: Proximal segment of small intestine
Option B: Middle segment of small intestine
Option C: Ascending colon
Option D: Ileum
Correct Answer: Proximal segment of small intestine ✔
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Option A: Oxidase
Option B: Hydrolase
Option C: Peroxidase
Option D: Dehydrogenase
Correct Answer: Oxidase ✔
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Option A: Integrin a6-B4
Option B: The catenins desmoplakin
Option C: cadherins desmoglein
Option D: a and B catenin
Correct Answer: Integrin a6-B4 ✔
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Option A: Glutamate
Option B: Acetoacetate
Option C: Cholesterol
Option D: Glycine
Correct Answer: Acetoacetate ✔
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Option A: Watson and Crick
Option B: Edwarg Angle
Option C: G.V Black
Option D: Singer and Nicolson
Correct Answer: Singer and Nicolson ✔
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Option A: Glutathione peroxidase
Option B: Catalase
Option C: Superoxide dismutase
Option D: Myeloperoxidase
Correct Answer: Myeloperoxidase ✔
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Option A: Real time PCR
Option B: Widal test
Option C: Electrophoresis
Option D: Immunofluoresence
Correct Answer: Real time PCR ✔
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Option A: Cyclic AMP
Option B: Cyclic GMP
Option C: Adenosine cyclate
Option D: Calcium release
Correct Answer: Cyclic AMP ✔
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Option A: Increased
Option B: Decreased
Option C: Uchanged
Option D: Has no effect
Correct Answer: Decreased ✔
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Option A: Deposition of chondroitin sulfate
Option B: Lipolysis
Option C: Gluconeogenesis
Option D: Decreased rate of glucose uptake by cells
Correct Answer: Deposition of chondroitin sulfate ✔
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Option A: Repaglinide
Option B: Voglibose
Option C: Exanatide
Option D: Rosiglitgazone
Correct Answer: Rosiglitgazone ✔
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Option A: 200 mg/dl
Option B: 180 mg/dl
Option C: 150 mg/dl
Option D: 120 mg/dl
Correct Answer: 200 mg/dl ✔
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Option A: < 135 mmol/L
Option B: >135 mmol/L
Option C: < 160 mmo/L
Option D: < 100 mmo/L
Correct Answer: < 135 mmol/L ✔
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Option A: Normal metabolism
Option B: Oxygen toxicity
Option C: Reperfusion after ischemic injury
Option D: All of the above
Correct Answer: Reperfusion after ischemic injury ✔
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Option A: Penicillin
Option B: Lysozyme
Option C: Betalysine
Option D: Lactoperoxidase
Correct Answer: Betalysine ✔
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Option A: Energy
Option B: Utility
Option C: Collectivity
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: None of the above ✔
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Option A: nidogen
Option B: Laminin
Option C: Eutactin
Option D: Rhodopsin
Correct Answer: Rhodopsin ✔
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Option A: Proteins
Option B: Carbohydrates
Option C: Fat
Option D: Fibre rich diet
Correct Answer: Fibre rich diet ✔
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Option A: Carbohydrates
Option B: Fibres
Option C: Fats
Option D: Micronutrients
Correct Answer: Fibres ✔
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Option A: Single unpaired electron in an outer orbit
Option B: Single paired electron in an outer orbit
Option C: Double unpaired electron in an outer orbit
Option D: Double paired electron in an outer orbit
Correct Answer: Single unpaired electron in an outer orbit ✔
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Option A: Cyclic AMP
Option B: Calcium ions
Option C: Cyclic GMP
Option D: Prostacyclins
Correct Answer: Cyclic GMP ✔
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Option A: Unfolding occurs
Option B: Disruption of secondary structure occurs
Option C: Sequence of amino acids remain the same
Option D: Biological activity is retained
Correct Answer: Biological activity is retained ✔
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Option A: Hypoxia stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased, 2, 3DPG
Option B: Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase
Option C: Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane
Option D: Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high PH
Correct Answer: Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane ✔
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Option A: Laminin
Option B: Fibronectin
Option C: E – Cadherins
Option D: Tenascin
Correct Answer: Laminin ✔
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Option A: 100-400 Bodansky units
Option B: 1000-4000 Bodansky units
Option C: 0.1-0.4 Bodansky units
Option D: 1-4 Bodansky units
Correct Answer: 1-4 Bodansky units ✔
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Option A: Bile acids
Option B: Steroid hormones
Option C: Vitamin D
Option D: Energy
Correct Answer: Energy ✔
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Option A: Alcohol dehydrogenase
Option B: Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Option C: Catalase
Option D: Enolase
Correct Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase ✔
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Option A: 280 to 295
Option B: 300 to 320
Option C: 350 to 375
Option D: 200 to 250
Correct Answer: 280 to 295 ✔
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Option A: Kidney
Option B: Liver
Option C: Spleen
Option D: Bone marrow
Correct Answer: Spleen ✔
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Option A: To screen for recombinant vectors
Option B: To detect gene mutations
Option C: To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors
Option D: To detect host DNA in situ
Correct Answer: To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors ✔
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Option A: Altering the free energy of the action
Option B: Inhibiting the backward reaction
Option C: Enhancing the forward reaction
Option D: Decreasing the energy of activation
Correct Answer: Decreasing the energy of activation ✔
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Option A: Protein
Option B: Water
Option C: Vitamin
Option D: Minerals
Correct Answer: Minerals ✔
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Option A: Post translation modification
Option B: Post transcriptional modification
Option C: DNA replication
Option D: Splicing
Correct Answer: Post translation modification ✔
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Option A: 2.5 – 4.5 mgm%
Option B: 7-9 mgm%
Option C: 40-50 mgm%
Option D: 1-2 mgm%
Correct Answer: A. 2.5 – 4.5 mgm% ✔
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Option A: Protein
Option B: Potassium
Option C: Urea
Option D: Phosphate
Correct Answer: Potassium ✔
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Option A: 1gm
Option B: 10 microgram
Option C: 10 mg
Option D: 20 mg
Correct Answer: 10 mg ✔
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Option A: Ca++
Option B: Zn++
Option C: Cu++
Option D: Selenium
Correct Answer: Zn++ ✔
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Option A: Gut
Option B: Spleen
Option C: Liver
Option D: All of the above
Correct Answer: Liver ✔
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Option A: Chromium
Option B: Selenium
Option C: Magnesium
Option D: Calcium
Correct Answer: Selenium ✔
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Option A: Mitochondria
Option B: Centrosome
Option C: Nucleus
Option D: Ribosome
Correct Answer: Ribosome ✔
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Option A: A+G=T+C
Option B: A/T=G/C
Option C: A=U=T=G=C
Option D: A+T=G+C
Correct Answer: A+G=T+C ✔
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Option A: m-RNA
Option B: DNA
Option C: t-RNA
Option D: Ribosomal RNA
Correct Answer: m-RNA ✔
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Option A: Terminator
Option B: Anti terminator
Option C: Operator
Option D: Promoter region
Correct Answer: Promoter region ✔
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Option A: Creatinine
Option B: Uric acid
Option C: Xanthine
Option D: Phosphates
Correct Answer: Uric acid ✔
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Option A: Degenerate
Option B: Universal
Option C: Punctuation
Option D: Non overlapping
Correct Answer: Punctuation ✔
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Option A: Nucleus
Option B: Nucleolus
Option C: Ribosome
Option D: Endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: Nucleolus ✔
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Option A: Deoxy pentose sugar
Option B: Phosphoric acid
Option C: Adenosine
Option D: Purine bases
Correct Answer: Adenosine ✔
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Option A: It gets broken down to nucleotides
Option B: It becomes single stranded reversibly
Option C: It becomes single stranded irreversibly
Option D: It becomes double stranded irreversibly
Correct Answer: It becomes single stranded reversibly ✔
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Option A: Restriction endonucleases
Option B: PCR
Option C: Reverse transcriptase FISH
Option D: None of these
Correct Answer: Restriction endonucleases ✔
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Option A: Single stranded complimentary copy of DNA
Option B: Double stranded complimentary copy of DNA
Option C: Complimentary copy of RNA
Option D: COmplimentary copy of rRNA
Correct Answer: Single stranded complimentary copy of DNA ✔
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Option A: Muscular dystrophy
Option B: Myocardial infarction
Option C: Alcoholic cirrhosis
Option D: Brain tumours
Correct Answer: Muscular dystrophy ✔
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Option A: Urea
Option B: Uric Acid
Option C: Creatinine
Option D: Glutamine
Correct Answer: Glutamine ✔
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Option A: Zinc
Option B: Chromium
Option C: Copper
Option D: Potassium
Correct Answer: Zinc ✔
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Option A: Binds the antibiotic Rifampicin
Option B: Is inhibited by a-amanitin
Option C: Specifically recognizes the promoter site
Option D: Is part of the core enzyme
Correct Answer: Specifically recognizes the promoter site ✔
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Option A: Phytates
Option B: Ascorbic acid
Option C: Tannins
Option D: Phosphates
Correct Answer: Ascorbic acid ✔
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Option A: 4-6 mg/dl
Option B: 9-11 mg/dl
Option C: 19-21 mg/dl
Option D: 20-30 mg/dl
Correct Answer: 9-11 mg/dl ✔
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Option A: 2.8-3.8 meq/L
Option B: 3.8-5 meq/L
Option C: 5-5.8 meq/L
Option D: 6-7.2 meq/L
Correct Answer: 3.8-5 meq/L ✔
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Option A: Transferrin
Option B: Ferritin
Option C: Hemoglobin
Option D: Ceruloplasmin
Correct Answer: Transferrin ✔
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Option A: MN++
Option B: Cu++
Option C: Mg++
Option D: Inorganic phosphate
Correct Answer: Mg++ ✔
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Option A: DNA nucleotide sequence
Option B: RNA nucleotide sequence
Option C: Amino acid sequence of ribonuclease
Option D: Cell walls
Correct Answer: DNA nucleotide sequence ✔
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Option A: AUG
Option B: UAA
Option C: UUU
Option D: UAG
Correct Answer: AUG ✔
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Option A: Elongation of polypeptide chain
Option B: Pre-translational modification of protein
Option C: Initiation of protein synthesis
Option D: Termination of protein synthesis
Correct Answer: Termination of protein synthesis ✔
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Option A: DNAse
Option B: Topo isomerase
Option C: Ligase
Option D: Reverse transcriptase
Correct Answer: Topo isomerase ✔
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Option A: Conjugation
Option B: Transduction
Option C: Translocation
Option D: Transcription
Correct Answer: Transcription ✔
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Option A: Double stranded DNA
Option B: SIngle stranded DNA
Option C: SIngle stranded RNA
Option D: Polypeptide
Correct Answer: Double stranded DNA ✔
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Genes are__________?
Option A: Ribonucleic acid
Option B: Deoxy ribonucleic acid
Option C: Lipoproteins
Option D: Chromo proteins
Correct Answer: Deoxy ribonucleic acid ✔
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Option A: Covalent bond
Option B: Hydrogen bond
Option C: Disulfide linkage
Option D: Vander wall forces
Correct Answer: Hydrogen bond ✔
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Option A: Adenine
Option B: Guanine
Option C: Cytosine
Option D: Uracil
Correct Answer: Uracil ✔
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Option A: 4 yrs
Option B: 6 yrs
Option C: 8 yrs
Option D: 10 yrs
Correct Answer: 4 yrs ✔
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Option A: Tight contacts, absence of spacing
Option B: Shallow overjet and overbite
Option C: Flush terminal plane
Option D: Ovoid arch form
Correct Answer: Tight contacts, absence of spacing ✔
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Option A: Mesiobuccal
Option B: Distobuccal
Option C: Mesiolingual
Option D: Distolingual
Correct Answer: Mesiolingual ✔
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Option A: In prism arrangement
Option B: in mineral content
Option C: No difference in enamel, difference in dentin
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: In prism arrangement ✔
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Among the difference between teeth in the decidous and the permanent dentition is that__________?
Option A: Buccal surfaces of the permanent molars are flatter
Option B: Cervical ridges are more pronounced in permanent molars
Option C: Root trunks of decidous teeth are larger compared with their overall root lengths
Option D: Crowns of decidous incisors are wider mesiodistally than their cervico incisal lengths
Correct Answer: Crowns of decidous incisors are wider mesiodistally than their cervico incisal lengths ✔
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Option A: Permanent central incisors
Option B: Decidous maxillary central incisors
Option C: Permanent maxillary canines
Option D: Permanent mandibular lateral incisors
Correct Answer: Decidous maxillary central incisors ✔
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Option A: Mesiolingual
Option B: Distolingual
Option C: Mesiobuccal
Option D: Distobuccal
Correct Answer: Mesiolingual ✔
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Option A: Mandibular first molar
Option B: Maxillary first molar
Option C: Mandibular second molar
Option D: Maxillary second molar
Correct Answer: Mandibular first molar ✔
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Option A: Thickness of enamel and dentin
Option B: Pulp chambers are longer
Option C: Roots are flaring
Option D: All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above ✔
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Option A: Wide and deep
Option B: Shallow and narrow
Option C: Wide and narrow
Option D: Shallow and wide
Correct Answer: Shallow and wide ✔
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Option A: Permanent second molar
Option B: Permanent first molar
Option C: Second premolar
Option D: Primary first molar
Correct Answer: Permanent first molar ✔
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Option A: Primary roots show less a accessory and lateral canals
Option B: Primary roots resorb more easily
Option C: Primary roots are shorter
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Primary roots show less a accessory and lateral canals ✔
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Option A: One
Option B: Two
Option C: Three
Option D: Four
Correct Answer: Three ✔
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Option A: Mandibular 1st molar
Option B: Mandibular2nd molar
Option C: Maxillary 2nd molar
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Mandibular2nd molar ✔
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Option A: Grooves
Option B: Fissures
Option C: Cusps
Option D: All of the above
Correct Answer: Grooves ✔
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Option A: Slender mesiodistally
Option B: Slender anteroposteriorly
Option C: Bulkier mesiodistally
Option D: Buliker anteroposteriorly
Correct Answer: Slender mesiodistally ✔
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Option A: Four pulp horn and three root canal
Option B: Three pulp horn and three root canal
Option C: Two pulp horn and two root canal
Option D: Two pulp horn and three root canal
Correct Answer: Four pulp horn and three root canal ✔
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Option A: 25 μm
Option B: 50μm
Option C: 75μm
Option D: 100μm
Correct Answer: 25 μm ✔
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Option A: Same as permanent teeth
Option B: Inclined in an apical direction in the cervical third of crown
Option C: Inclined in an occlusal direction in the cervical third of crown
Option D: None of the above
Correct Answer: Inclined in an occlusal direction in the cervical third of crown ✔
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Option A: Less
Option B: Greater
Option C: The same
Option D: Not related
Correct Answer: Greater ✔
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Option A: Decidous mandibular 1st molar
Option B: Decidous maxillary 1st molar
Option C: Decidous maxillary 2nd molar
Option D: Decidous mandibular 2nd molar
Correct Answer: Decidous maxillary 2nd molar ✔
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Option A: Calcification of maxillary primary first premolar is completed at birth
Option B: Mandibular first molar erupts at one and half years of age
Option C: The crowns of primary dentition are more yellowish than permanent
Option D: The primary dentition is initiated at 10th month in uterus
Correct Answer: Mandibular first molar erupts at one and half years of age ✔
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Option A: Enamel rods at cervical region directed occlusally
Option B: Results in constriction at cervical region
Option C: Is characteristic of decidous teeth
Option D: All of the above
Correct Answer: Is characteristic of decidous teeth ✔
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Option A: Mandibular central incisor
Option B: Mandibular first molar
Option C: Maxillary central incisor
Option D: Maxillary second molar
Correct Answer: Mandibular central incisor ✔
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