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Medical MCQs

Option A: G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface

Option B: All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind each other for G protein to act

Option C: G Proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit

Option D: G protein is bound to GTP in resting state

Correct Answer: G Proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit


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Option A: Electrical insulators

Option B: Irons

Option C: Non electrical insulators

Option D: Electrolytes

Correct Answer: Electrical insulators


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Option A: Myoglobin

Option B: Cytochrome

Option C: Catalase

Option D: Pyruvate kinase

Correct Answer: Pyruvate kinase


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Option A: Rice

Option B: Human milk

Option C: Egg yolk

Option D: Cow’s milk

Correct Answer: Rice


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Option A: Transferrin

Option B: Ferritin

Option C: Apoferritin

Option D: Lactoferrin

Correct Answer: Transferrin


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Option A: Proximal segment of small intestine

Option B: Middle segment of small intestine

Option C: Ascending colon

Option D: Ileum

Correct Answer: Proximal segment of small intestine


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Option A: Oxidase

Option B: Hydrolase

Option C: Peroxidase

Option D: Dehydrogenase

Correct Answer: Oxidase


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Option A: Integrin a6-B4

Option B: The catenins desmoplakin

Option C: cadherins desmoglein

Option D: a and B catenin

Correct Answer: Integrin a6-B4


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Option A: Glutamate

Option B: Acetoacetate

Option C: Cholesterol

Option D: Glycine

Correct Answer: Acetoacetate


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Option A: Watson and Crick

Option B: Edwarg Angle

Option C: G.V Black

Option D: Singer and Nicolson

Correct Answer: Singer and Nicolson


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Option A: Glutathione peroxidase

Option B: Catalase

Option C: Superoxide dismutase

Option D: Myeloperoxidase

Correct Answer: Myeloperoxidase


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Option A: Real time PCR

Option B: Widal test

Option C: Electrophoresis

Option D: Immunofluoresence

Correct Answer: Real time PCR


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Option A: Cyclic AMP

Option B: Cyclic GMP

Option C: Adenosine cyclate

Option D: Calcium release

Correct Answer: Cyclic AMP


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Option A: Increased

Option B: Decreased

Option C: Uchanged

Option D: Has no effect

Correct Answer: Decreased


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Option A: Deposition of chondroitin sulfate

Option B: Lipolysis

Option C: Gluconeogenesis

Option D: Decreased rate of glucose uptake by cells

Correct Answer: Deposition of chondroitin sulfate


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Option A: Repaglinide

Option B: Voglibose

Option C: Exanatide

Option D: Rosiglitgazone

Correct Answer: Rosiglitgazone


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Option A: 200 mg/dl

Option B: 180 mg/dl

Option C: 150 mg/dl

Option D: 120 mg/dl

Correct Answer: 200 mg/dl


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Option A: < 135 mmol/L

Option B: >135 mmol/L

Option C: < 160 mmo/L

Option D: < 100 mmo/L

Correct Answer: < 135 mmol/L


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Option A: Normal metabolism

Option B: Oxygen toxicity

Option C: Reperfusion after ischemic injury

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Reperfusion after ischemic injury


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Option A: Penicillin

Option B: Lysozyme

Option C: Betalysine

Option D: Lactoperoxidase

Correct Answer: Betalysine


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Option A: Energy

Option B: Utility

Option C: Collectivity

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: None of the above


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Option A: nidogen

Option B: Laminin

Option C: Eutactin

Option D: Rhodopsin

Correct Answer: Rhodopsin


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Option A: Proteins

Option B: Carbohydrates

Option C: Fat

Option D: Fibre rich diet

Correct Answer: Fibre rich diet


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Option A: Carbohydrates

Option B: Fibres

Option C: Fats

Option D: Micronutrients

Correct Answer: Fibres


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Option A: Single unpaired electron in an outer orbit

Option B: Single paired electron in an outer orbit

Option C: Double unpaired electron in an outer orbit

Option D: Double paired electron in an outer orbit

Correct Answer: Single unpaired electron in an outer orbit


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Option A: Cyclic AMP

Option B: Calcium ions

Option C: Cyclic GMP

Option D: Prostacyclins

Correct Answer: Cyclic GMP


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Option A: Unfolding occurs

Option B: Disruption of secondary structure occurs

Option C: Sequence of amino acids remain the same

Option D: Biological activity is retained

Correct Answer: Biological activity is retained


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Option A: Hypoxia stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased, 2, 3DPG

Option B: Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase

Option C: Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane

Option D: Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high PH

Correct Answer: Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane


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Option A: Laminin

Option B: Fibronectin

Option C: E – Cadherins

Option D: Tenascin

Correct Answer: Laminin


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Option A: 100-400 Bodansky units

Option B: 1000-4000 Bodansky units

Option C: 0.1-0.4 Bodansky units

Option D: 1-4 Bodansky units

Correct Answer: 1-4 Bodansky units


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Option A: Bile acids

Option B: Steroid hormones

Option C: Vitamin D

Option D: Energy

Correct Answer: Energy


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Option A: Alcohol dehydrogenase

Option B: Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

Option C: Catalase

Option D: Enolase

Correct Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase


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Option A: 280 to 295

Option B: 300 to 320

Option C: 350 to 375

Option D: 200 to 250

Correct Answer: 280 to 295


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Option A: 4

Option B: 7

Option C: 9

Option D: 5

Correct Answer: 9


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Option A: Kidney

Option B: Liver

Option C: Spleen

Option D: Bone marrow

Correct Answer: Spleen


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Option A: To screen for recombinant vectors

Option B: To detect gene mutations

Option C: To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors

Option D: To detect host DNA in situ

Correct Answer: To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors


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Option A: Altering the free energy of the action

Option B: Inhibiting the backward reaction

Option C: Enhancing the forward reaction

Option D: Decreasing the energy of activation

Correct Answer: Decreasing the energy of activation


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Option A: Protein

Option B: Water

Option C: Vitamin

Option D: Minerals

Correct Answer: Minerals


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Option A: Post translation modification

Option B: Post transcriptional modification

Option C: DNA replication

Option D: Splicing

Correct Answer: Post translation modification


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Option A: 2.5 – 4.5 mgm%

Option B: 7-9 mgm%

Option C: 40-50 mgm%

Option D: 1-2 mgm%

Correct Answer: A. 2.5 – 4.5 mgm%


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Option A: Protein

Option B: Potassium

Option C: Urea

Option D: Phosphate

Correct Answer: Potassium


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Option A: 1gm

Option B: 10 microgram

Option C: 10 mg

Option D: 20 mg

Correct Answer: 10 mg


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Option A: Ca++

Option B: Zn++

Option C: Cu++

Option D: Selenium

Correct Answer: Zn++


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Option A: Gut

Option B: Spleen

Option C: Liver

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Liver


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Option A: Chromium

Option B: Selenium

Option C: Magnesium

Option D: Calcium

Correct Answer: Selenium


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Option A: Mitochondria

Option B: Centrosome

Option C: Nucleus

Option D: Ribosome

Correct Answer: Ribosome


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Option A: A+G=T+C

Option B: A/T=G/C

Option C: A=U=T=G=C

Option D: A+T=G+C

Correct Answer: A+G=T+C


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Option A: m-RNA

Option B: DNA

Option C: t-RNA

Option D: Ribosomal RNA

Correct Answer: m-RNA


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Option A: Terminator

Option B: Anti terminator

Option C: Operator

Option D: Promoter region

Correct Answer: Promoter region


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Option A: Creatinine

Option B: Uric acid

Option C: Xanthine

Option D: Phosphates

Correct Answer: Uric acid


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Option A: Degenerate

Option B: Universal

Option C: Punctuation

Option D: Non overlapping

Correct Answer: Punctuation


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Option A: Nucleus

Option B: Nucleolus

Option C: Ribosome

Option D: Endoplasmic reticulum

Correct Answer: Nucleolus


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Option A: Deoxy pentose sugar

Option B: Phosphoric acid

Option C: Adenosine

Option D: Purine bases

Correct Answer: Adenosine


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Option A: It gets broken down to nucleotides

Option B: It becomes single stranded reversibly

Option C: It becomes single stranded irreversibly

Option D: It becomes double stranded irreversibly

Correct Answer: It becomes single stranded reversibly


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Option A: Restriction endonucleases

Option B: PCR

Option C: Reverse transcriptase FISH

Option D: None of these

Correct Answer: Restriction endonucleases


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Option A: Single stranded complimentary copy of DNA

Option B: Double stranded complimentary copy of DNA

Option C: Complimentary copy of RNA

Option D: COmplimentary copy of rRNA

Correct Answer: Single stranded complimentary copy of DNA


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Option A: Muscular dystrophy

Option B: Myocardial infarction

Option C: Alcoholic cirrhosis

Option D: Brain tumours

Correct Answer: Muscular dystrophy


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Option A: Urea

Option B: Uric Acid

Option C: Creatinine

Option D: Glutamine

Correct Answer: Glutamine


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Option A: Zinc

Option B: Chromium

Option C: Copper

Option D: Potassium

Correct Answer: Zinc


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Option A: Binds the antibiotic Rifampicin

Option B: Is inhibited by a-amanitin

Option C: Specifically recognizes the promoter site

Option D: Is part of the core enzyme

Correct Answer: Specifically recognizes the promoter site


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Option A: Phytates

Option B: Ascorbic acid

Option C: Tannins

Option D: Phosphates

Correct Answer: Ascorbic acid


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Option A: 4-6 mg/dl

Option B: 9-11 mg/dl

Option C: 19-21 mg/dl

Option D: 20-30 mg/dl

Correct Answer: 9-11 mg/dl


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Option A: 2.8-3.8 meq/L

Option B: 3.8-5 meq/L

Option C: 5-5.8 meq/L

Option D: 6-7.2 meq/L

Correct Answer: 3.8-5 meq/L


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Option A: Transferrin

Option B: Ferritin

Option C: Hemoglobin

Option D: Ceruloplasmin

Correct Answer: Transferrin


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Option A: MN++

Option B: Cu++

Option C: Mg++

Option D: Inorganic phosphate

Correct Answer: Mg++


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Option A: DNA nucleotide sequence

Option B: RNA nucleotide sequence

Option C: Amino acid sequence of ribonuclease

Option D: Cell walls

Correct Answer: DNA nucleotide sequence


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Option A: AUG

Option B: UAA

Option C: UUU

Option D: UAG

Correct Answer: AUG


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Option A: Elongation of polypeptide chain

Option B: Pre-translational modification of protein

Option C: Initiation of protein synthesis

Option D: Termination of protein synthesis

Correct Answer: Termination of protein synthesis


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Option A: DNAse

Option B: Topo isomerase

Option C: Ligase

Option D: Reverse transcriptase

Correct Answer: Topo isomerase


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Option A: Conjugation

Option B: Transduction

Option C: Translocation

Option D: Transcription

Correct Answer: Transcription


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Option A: Double stranded DNA

Option B: SIngle stranded DNA

Option C: SIngle stranded RNA

Option D: Polypeptide

Correct Answer: Double stranded DNA


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Option A: Ribonucleic acid

Option B: Deoxy ribonucleic acid

Option C: Lipoproteins

Option D: Chromo proteins

Correct Answer: Deoxy ribonucleic acid


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Option A: Covalent bond

Option B: Hydrogen bond

Option C: Disulfide linkage

Option D: Vander wall forces

Correct Answer: Hydrogen bond


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Option A: Adenine

Option B: Guanine

Option C: Cytosine

Option D: Uracil

Correct Answer: Uracil


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Option A: 4 yrs

Option B: 6 yrs

Option C: 8 yrs

Option D: 10 yrs

Correct Answer: 4 yrs


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Option A: Tight contacts, absence of spacing

Option B: Shallow overjet and overbite

Option C: Flush terminal plane

Option D: Ovoid arch form

Correct Answer: Tight contacts, absence of spacing


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Option A: Mesiobuccal

Option B: Distobuccal

Option C: Mesiolingual

Option D: Distolingual

Correct Answer: Mesiolingual


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Option A: In prism arrangement

Option B: in mineral content

Option C: No difference in enamel, difference in dentin

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: In prism arrangement


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Option A: Buccal surfaces of the permanent molars are flatter

Option B: Cervical ridges are more pronounced in permanent molars

Option C: Root trunks of decidous teeth are larger compared with their overall root lengths

Option D: Crowns of decidous incisors are wider mesiodistally than their cervico incisal lengths

Correct Answer: Crowns of decidous incisors are wider mesiodistally than their cervico incisal lengths


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Option A: Permanent central incisors

Option B: Decidous maxillary central incisors

Option C: Permanent maxillary canines

Option D: Permanent mandibular lateral incisors

Correct Answer: Decidous maxillary central incisors


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Option A: Mesiolingual

Option B: Distolingual

Option C: Mesiobuccal

Option D: Distobuccal

Correct Answer: Mesiolingual


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Option A: Mandibular first molar

Option B: Maxillary first molar

Option C: Mandibular second molar

Option D: Maxillary second molar

Correct Answer: Mandibular first molar


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Option A: Thickness of enamel and dentin

Option B: Pulp chambers are longer

Option C: Roots are flaring

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above


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Option A: Wide and deep

Option B: Shallow and narrow

Option C: Wide and narrow

Option D: Shallow and wide

Correct Answer: Shallow and wide


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Option A: Permanent second molar

Option B: Permanent first molar

Option C: Second premolar

Option D: Primary first molar

Correct Answer: Permanent first molar


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Option A: Primary roots show less a accessory and lateral canals

Option B: Primary roots resorb more easily

Option C: Primary roots are shorter

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Primary roots show less a accessory and lateral canals


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Option A: One

Option B: Two

Option C: Three

Option D: Four

Correct Answer: Three


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Option A: 2

Option B: 3

Option C: 4

Option D: 5

Correct Answer: 4


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Option A: Mandibular 1st molar

Option B: Mandibular2nd molar

Option C: Maxillary 2nd molar

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Mandibular2nd molar


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Option A: Grooves

Option B: Fissures

Option C: Cusps

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Grooves


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Option A: Slender mesiodistally

Option B: Slender anteroposteriorly

Option C: Bulkier mesiodistally

Option D: Buliker anteroposteriorly

Correct Answer: Slender mesiodistally


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Option A: Four pulp horn and three root canal

Option B: Three pulp horn and three root canal

Option C: Two pulp horn and two root canal

Option D: Two pulp horn and three root canal

Correct Answer: Four pulp horn and three root canal


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Option A: 25 μm

Option B: 50μm

Option C: 75μm

Option D: 100μm

Correct Answer: 25 μm


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Option A: Same as permanent teeth

Option B: Inclined in an apical direction in the cervical third of crown

Option C: Inclined in an occlusal direction in the cervical third of crown

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Inclined in an occlusal direction in the cervical third of crown


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Option A: Less

Option B: Greater

Option C: The same

Option D: Not related

Correct Answer: Greater


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Option A: Decidous mandibular 1st molar

Option B: Decidous maxillary 1st molar

Option C: Decidous maxillary 2nd molar

Option D: Decidous mandibular 2nd molar

Correct Answer: Decidous maxillary 2nd molar


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Option A: 3

Option B: 6

Option C: 4

Option D: 5

Correct Answer: 5


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Option A: Calcification of maxillary primary first premolar is completed at birth

Option B: Mandibular first molar erupts at one and half years of age

Option C: The crowns of primary dentition are more yellowish than permanent

Option D: The primary dentition is initiated at 10th month in uterus

Correct Answer: Mandibular first molar erupts at one and half years of age


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Option A: Enamel rods at cervical region directed occlusally

Option B: Results in constriction at cervical region

Option C: Is characteristic of decidous teeth

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Is characteristic of decidous teeth


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Option A: Mandibular central incisor

Option B: Mandibular first molar

Option C: Maxillary central incisor

Option D: Maxillary second molar

Correct Answer: Mandibular central incisor


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