Medical MCQs

Option A: Rickets

Option B: Congenital hyperthyroidism

Option C: Cleidocranial dysplasia

Option D: Cherubism

Correct Answer: Congenital hyperthyroidism ✔

Option A: Necrotising ulcerative gingivtis

Option B: Candidiasis

Option C: Actinomycosis

Option D: Apthous ulcers

Correct Answer: Candidiasis ✔

Option A: 6 days

Option B: 2-6 weeks

Option C: 10-12 weeks

Option D: 18 mouths

Correct Answer: 2-6 weeks ✔

Option A: Mycormycosis

Option B: Histoplasmosis

Option C: Candidiasis

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Mycormycosis ✔

Option A: Occurs only in elderly

Option B: Is caused by a gram -ve bacteria

Option C: Is seen clinically as a proliferative lesion

Option D: Responds to nystatin

Correct Answer: Responds to nystatin ✔

Option A: Actinomyces

Option B: candida albicans

Option C: Blastomyces

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: candida albicans ✔

Option A: Median rhomboid glossitis

Option B: Geographic tongue

Option C: Oral thrush

Option D: Denture stomatitis

Correct Answer: Geographic tongue ✔

Option A: Botryomycosis

Option B: Coccidiomycosis

Option C: phytomycosis

Option D: Mucormycosis

Correct Answer: Mucormycosis ✔

Option A: apthous ulcer

Option B: herpetic stomatitis

Option C: syphilis

Option D: candidiasis

Correct Answer: candidiasis ✔

Option A: Histoplasmosis

Option B: Phycomycosis

Option C: Actinomycosis

Option D: Bleomycosis

Correct Answer: Histoplasmosis ✔

Option A: Coccidiomycosis

Option B: Aspergillosis

Option C: Mucormycosis

Option D: Histoplasmosis

Correct Answer: Mucormycosis ✔

Option A: Mucor

Option B: Aspergillosis

Option C: Cryptococcus neoformans

Option D: Coccidioides immitis

Correct Answer: Mucor ✔

Option A: Secondary infections

Option B: Subsidiary infections

Option C: Subclinical infections

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Secondary infections ✔

Option A: Cryptococcus

Option B: Histoplasmosis

Option C: Blastomycosis

Option D: Paracoccidiomycosis

Correct Answer: Cryptococcus ✔

Option A: Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis

Option B: Acute atrohpic candidiasis

Option C: Chronic atrophic candidiasis

Option D: Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis

Correct Answer: Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis ✔

Option A: Acute Pseudo Membranous

Option B: Acute Atrophic

Option C: Chronic Hyperplastic

Option D: Chonic atrophic

Correct Answer: Chonic atrophic ✔

Option A: migrating geographic tongue

Option B: median rhomboidal glossitis

Option C: Prolonged tetracycline therapy

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: median rhomboidal glossitis ✔

Option A: Clobetasol

Option B: Co-trimoxozle

Option C: Miconazole

Option D: Penicillin

Correct Answer: Miconazole ✔

Option A: Mucor

Option B: Candida

Option C: Treponema

Option D: Aspergillus

Correct Answer: Candida ✔

Option A: Characteristic odour

Option B: Demonstration of mycelia and spores in scrapping

Option C: Response to injection of vitamin B12

Option D: Demonstration of ray fungus in granules

Correct Answer: Demonstration of mycelia and spores in scrapping ✔

Option A: Oral thrush

Option B: Pemphigus vulagaris

Option C: Leukoplakia

Option D: Erythroplakia

Correct Answer: Oral thrush ✔

Option A: Eosinophils

Option B: Macropages

Option C: Plasma cells

Option D: T Lymphocytes

Correct Answer: T Lymphocytes ✔

Option A: Acute atrophic candidiasis

Option B: Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis

Option C: chronic atrophic candidiasis

Option D: chronic hyperplastic candidiasis

Correct Answer: Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis ✔

Option A: histoplasmosis

Option B: cryptococcosis

Option C: candidiasis

Option D: coccidiomycosis

Correct Answer: candidiasis ✔

Option A: It is caused by a gram-negative fungus

Option B: It is characterized by a plaque of proliferating epithelial and other cells

Option C: It is a complication of immunosuppression or systemic diseases

Option D: It can affect neonates in an epidemic fashion

Correct Answer: It is caused by a gram-negative fungus ✔

Option A: Pyknosis – shrinkage of nucleus

Option B: Karyolysis – Dissolution of nucleus

Option C: Karyorrhexis – fragmentation of nucleus

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Low density lipoproteins has maximum association with atherosclerosis

Option B: High density lipoproteins have protective role in atherosclerosis

Option C: Poly unsaturated fats lowers plasma cholesterol levels

Option D: HDL contains the highest cholesterol content

Correct Answer: HDL contains the highest cholesterol content ✔

Option A: Arterial thrombi produces ischemia and infarction where as cardiac and venous thrombi cause embolism

Option B: Arterial thrombi to be white and non occlusive (mural) where as venous thrombi are red and occlusive

Option C: Venous thrombi are soft, red and gelatinous where as arterial thrombi are firm and white

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Above the proportional limit a material function in a plastic manner, while below the proportional limit it behaves as an elastic

Option B: Above the proportional limit a material functions in an elastic manner, while below the proportional limit it behaves as an plastic

Option C: Either A or B

Option D: Neither A or B

Correct Answer: Above the proportional limit a material function in a plastic manner, while below the proportional limit it behaves as an elastic ✔

Option A: Type I and Type II gold can be heat treated and annealed

Option B: Type III and Type IV gold can be heat treated and annealed

Option C: Type I and IV gold can be heat treated and annealed

Option D: All the type of gold can be heat treated and annealed

Correct Answer: Type III and Type IV gold can be heat treated and annealed ✔

Option A: Acrodynia

Option B: Pemphigus vulgaris

Option C: Epidermolysis Bullosa

Option D: Erosive lichen planus

Correct Answer: Acrodynia ✔

Option A: Cleidocranial dysostoses

Option B: Sturge – weber syndrome

Option C: Paget’s disease

Option D: Mc Cline – Albright syndrome

Correct Answer: B. Sturge – weber syndrome ✔

Option A: Ageusia

Option B: Dysguesia

Option C: Cocoguesia

Option D: Phantoguesia

Correct Answer: Phantoguesia ✔

Option A: Enolase & calcitonin

Option B: Alkaline phosphatase & catalase

Option C: Alkaline phosphatase & pyrophosphatase

Option D: Pyrophosphatase & carbonic anhydrase

Correct Answer: Alkaline phosphatase & pyrophosphatase ✔

Option A: Hydroxy glacine

Option B: Glycine

Option C: Proline

Option D: Hydroxproline

Correct Answer: Hydroxproline ✔

Option A: Increased mobility of the teeth

Option B: Radiographic widening of the pdl

Option C: Morning pain in muscles

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Wegener’s Granulomatosis

Option B: Scorbutic Gingivitis

Option C: Plasma cell Gingivitis

Option D: Leukemic Gingivitis

Correct Answer: A. Wegener’s Granulomatosis ✔

Option A: Apical cyst

Option B: Apical condensing osteitis

Option C: Chronic apical periodontitis

Option D: Stage one apical osteofibroses

Correct Answer: Apical condensing osteitis ✔

Option A: Sickle cell anaemia

Option B: Iron deficiency anaemia

Option C: Apthous ulcer

Option D: Herpes simplex

Correct Answer: Herpes simplex ✔

Option A: Stratum corneum

Option B: Stratum lucidum

Option C: Stratum germinativum

Option D: Stratum spinosum

Correct Answer: Stratum germinativum ✔

Option A: Intrathecal

Option B: Oral

Option C: Subdermal

Option D: Intravenous

Correct Answer: Oral ✔

Option A: 3 months postpartum to 7th year of life

Option B: 4 months in utero to 3 months postpartum

Option C: 5 months in utero to 9 months postpartum

Option D: Birth to 7th year

Correct Answer: 3 months postpartum to 7th year of life ✔

Option A: Burkitt’s lymphoma

Option B: Mycosis fungiodes

Option C: Mantel cell leukemia

Option D: Hairy cell leukemia

Correct Answer: Mycosis fungiodes ✔

Option A: Carpenter syndrome

Option B: Crounzon Syndrome

Option C: Apert Syndrome

Option D: Down’s syndrome

Correct Answer: Carpenter syndrome ✔

Option A: Sjogren’s disease

Option B: Ankylosing spondylitis

Option C: Felty’s syndrome

Option D: Scleroderma

Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis ✔

Option A: Culture with giemsa stain:

Option B: Culture with wright strain

Option C: Routing cytology

Option D: Flourescent stain for cytology

Correct Answer: Flourescent stain for cytology ✔

Option A: Ranula

Option B: Diabetes mellitus

Option C: Pernicious anaemia

Option D: Local irritation

Correct Answer: Ranula ✔

Option A: Assessment of root dentin translucency

Option B: Amino acid racemisation

Option C: Evaluation of tooth cementum annulations

Option D: Pulp to tooth ratio of canines

Correct Answer: Pulp to tooth ratio of canines ✔

Option A: Pink tooth of mummery

Option B: Ochronosis

Option C: Chlorodontia

Option D: Leong teeth

Correct Answer: Pink tooth of mummery ✔

Option A: Syphilitic glossitis and plummer vinson syndrome

Option B: Syphilitic glossitis and Mikulicz’s syndrome

Option C: Plummer vinson disease and hepatitis A

Option D: Hepatitis A and Mikulicz’s Syndrome

Correct Answer: Syphilitic glossitis and plummer vinson syndrome ✔

Option A: Tooth wear due to gastric secretion

Option B: Tooth wear due to bruxism

Option C: Tooth wear due to dentifrices

Option D: Peripheral blood cell destruction

Correct Answer: Tooth wear due to gastric secretion ✔

Option A: Cemental dysplasia

Option B: Cemental aplasia

Option C: Condensing osteitis

Option D: Focal periapical osteopetrosis

Correct Answer: Cemental aplasia ✔

Option A: Molluscum contagiosum

Option B: Focal epithelial hyperplasia

Option C: Squamous papilloma

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Coronary Heart Disease

Option B: Rheumatic Heart Disease

Option C: Cardiac Pacemakers

Option D: Hypertensive Heart Disease

Correct Answer: Rheumatic Heart Disease ✔

Option A: Tell patient no malignancy

Option B: Repeat the biopsy

Option C: Observe the patient for twelve months

Option D: Observe the patient for three months

Correct Answer: Repeat the biopsy ✔

Option A: Leukopenia

Option B: Osler’s disease

Option C: Mediterranean disease

Option D: Aplastic anaemia

Correct Answer: B. Osler’s disease ✔

Option A: Hard palate is formed by maxilla, palatine and vomer bone.

Option B: Levator palatine forms a delicated tendon which winds round the pterygoid hamulus and flattens out to form the palatine aponeurosis

Option C: All the constrictors of pharynx are inserted into median raphae on the posterior wall of the pharynx.

Option D: The posterior wall of pharynx, the upper part of thyropharyngeus is a multiple sheet of muscle and is overlapped by the upper and middle constrictors.

Correct Answer: All the constrictors of pharynx are inserted into median raphae on the posterior wall of the pharynx. ✔

Option A: Upper lip

Option B: Palate

Option C: Lower lip

Option D: Glingiva

Correct Answer: Upper lip ✔

Option A: Trigeminal neuralgia

Option B: Sicca syndrome

Option C: Dry socket

Option D: Myospherulosis

Correct Answer: Dry socket ✔

Option A: Periapical granuloma

Option B: Cementoblastoma

Option C: Radicular cyst

Option D: Chronic abscess

Correct Answer: Cementoblastoma ✔

Option A: Dental extractions

Option B: Initial placement of orthodontic brackets

Option C: Intracanal endodontic treatment

Option D: Periodontal procedures

Correct Answer: Initial placement of orthodontic brackets ✔

Option A: Lip prints

Option B: Lip Schutz bodies

Option C: Lip pits

Option D: Lip reading

Correct Answer: Lip prints ✔

Option A: Multiple granulomas

Option B: Periapical osteofibroses

Option C: Chronic periapical abscesses

Option D: Bone hypoplasias associated with opalescent teeth

Correct Answer: Periapical osteofibroses ✔

Option A: Insulinoma, obesity & cutaneous hypopigmentation

Option B: Insulin resistance, obesity, cutaneous hyperpigmentation

Option C: Thickening of spinous layer, insulin resistance, obesity

Option D: Thickening of spinous layer insulin resistance, lean

Correct Answer: Insulin resistance, obesity, cutaneous hyperpigmentation ✔

Option A: X-linked dominant trait

Option B: Autosomal dominant

Option C: Autosomal recessive

Option D: X-linked recessive

Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive ✔

Option A: Purpura

Option B: Hemophilia

Option C: Polycythemia

Option D: Thalassemia

Correct Answer: Thalassemia ✔

Option A: Gallium 67 (67 Ga)

Option B: Technetium-99m (99m Tc-Sc)

Option C: Technetium-99m (99m Tc)

Option D: Technetium-99m linked to Methylene disphosonate (99m Tc-MDP)

Correct Answer: Technetium-99m linked to Methylene disphosonate (99m Tc-MDP) ✔

Option A: Decreased absolute neutrophil count

Option B: Increased absolute eosinophil count

Option C: Decreased absolute basophil count

Option D: Increased absolute monocyte count

Correct Answer: Decreased absolute neutrophil count ✔

Option A: Von willebrand’s disease

Option B: Haemophilia- A

Option C: Parahemophilia

Option D: Haemophilia – B

Correct Answer: A. Von willebrand’s disease ✔

Option A: Increased in number of globulin chain

Option B: There is erythrocyte fragility and hemolysis

Option C: Hypochromic microcytic anaemia is present

Option D: There is severe anaemia and thrombocytopenia

Correct Answer: Increased in number of globulin chain ✔

Option A: Thalassemia

Option B: Sickle anemia

Option C: Cooley’s anaemia

Option D: Pagets disease

Correct Answer: Pagets disease ✔

Option A: Normal bleeding time normal clotting time

Option B: Normal bleeding time prolonged clotting time

Option C: Prolonged bleeding time normal clotting time

Option D: Prolonged bleeding time prolonged clotting time:

Correct Answer: Normal bleeding time prolonged clotting time ✔

Option A: Marfan’s syndrome

Option B: Plummer-vinson

Option C: Meckels syndrome

Option D: sjogren’s syndrome

Correct Answer: Plummer-vinson ✔

Option A: Bluish red spots opposite maxillary molar

Option B: Pseudomembrane on gingiva

Option C: Pinpoint petechiae on the palate

Option D: Gingival hyperplasia

Correct Answer: Pinpoint petechiae on the palate ✔

Option A: Ameloblastoma

Option B: Leukemia

Option C: Fibrosarcoma

Option D: Basal cell carcinoma

Correct Answer: Leukemia ✔

Option A: Atrophy

Option B: Hypertrophy

Option C: Acanthosis

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Atrophy ✔

Option A: Aplastic anemia

Option B: Megaloblastic anemia

Option C: Thrombocytopenia

Option D: Hemolytic anemia

Correct Answer: Aplastic anemia ✔

Option A: Consult physician

Option B: Obtain WBC count

Option C: Obtain platelet count

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Is due to folic acid deficiency

Option B: common in males

Option C: Not associated with oral premalignancy

Option D: Strong association with post-cricoid carcinoma

Correct Answer: common in males ✔

Option A: Chromosomal deletion

Option B: Chromosomal mutation

Option C: Chromosomal translocation

Option D: None of the above

Correct Answer: Chromosomal translocation ✔

Option A: Enlarged tongue

Option B: Atrophic glossitis

Option C: Generalized osteolysis

Option D: Focal marrow expansion

Correct Answer: Atrophic glossitis ✔

Option A: Hageman Factor

Option B: Platelets

Option C: Plasma thromboplastin antecedent

Option D: Plasma thromboplastin component

Correct Answer: Plasma thromboplastin component ✔

Option A: Glandular involvement

Option B: Febrile

Option C: Palatine Petechiae

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: influenza

Option B: agranulocytosis

Option C: liver cirrhosis

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above ✔

Option A: Ecchymosis

Option B: Petechiae

Option C: Melanosis

Option D: Purpura

Correct Answer: Melanosis ✔

Option A: Vitamin K

Option B: Monsel’s solution

Option C: Aminocaproic acid

Option D: Factor 8 cryoprecipitate

Correct Answer: Aminocaproic acid ✔

Option A: Infectious mononucleosis

Option B: Thrombocytopenic purpura

Option C: Leukemia

Option D: Hemophilia

Correct Answer: ✔

Option A: Factor VII deficiency

Option B: Factor IX deficiency

Option C: Platelet deficiency

Option D: it C deficiency

Correct Answer: Factor IX deficiency ✔

Option A: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

Option B: Infection mononucleosis

Option C: Primary syphilis

Option D: Recurrent apthous stomatitis

Correct Answer: Infection mononucleosis ✔

Option A: Folic acid deficiency

Option B: Pernicious anaemia

Option C: Plummer-Vinson syndrome

Option D: Paterson-Kelly syndrome

Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia ✔

Option A: Fibrous dysplasia

Option B: Thalassemia

Option C: Garre’s Osteomyelitis

Option D: Pagets disease

Correct Answer: Thalassemia ✔

Option A: Dentinal dysplasia

Option B: Hypoplastic teeth

Option C: Pigmented teeth

Option D: All of the above

Correct Answer: Pigmented teeth ✔

Option A: Codominant

Option B: Autosomal dominan

Option C: Autosomal recessive

Option D: X-Linked recessive

Correct Answer: Autosomal dominan ✔

Option A: Chronic ITP commonly occur in adult women

Option B: Associated with normal bleeding time

Option C: Prothrombin Time (PT) & Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) are normal

Option D: Increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow

Correct Answer: Associated with normal bleeding time ✔

Option A: Cementum apposition

Option B: Transparency of root

Option C: Attrition

Option D: Root resorption

Correct Answer: Transparency of root ✔

Option A: Factor IX deficiency

Option B: Vitamin K deficiency

Option C: Factor X deficiency

Option D: Factor VIII deficiency

Correct Answer: Factor VIII deficiency ✔

Option A: Erythroblastosis fetalis

Option B: Aplatic anemia

Option C: Thalassemia

Option D: Pernicious anemia

Correct Answer: Thalassemia ✔

Option A: Blocking antibody

Option B: Rh (D) immunoglobulin

Option C: Antilymphocyte globulin

Option D: Antithymocyte serum

Correct Answer: Rh (D) immunoglobulin ✔

Option A: Prothrombin time

Option B: Tourniquet time

Option C: Clotting time

Option D: Bleeding time

Correct Answer: Prothrombin time ✔

Option A: Chloramphenicol

Option B: Cephalosporin

Option C: Tetracycline

Option D: Penicillin

Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol ✔